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krok68 [10]
3 years ago
7

Please help, this is due soon!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
6 0
Before outlier : 7.25
After outlier : 4

7.25 - 4 = 3.25

So the mean decreases by 3.25 when the outlier is removed.
You might be interested in
Solve the formula for v1
Oksanka [162]

So firstly, multiply both sides by t: ta=v_1-v_0

Next, add both sides by v0, and your answer will be: ta+v_0=v_1

6 0
3 years ago
Imagine an experiment having three conditions and 20 subjects within each condition. The mean and variances of each condition ar
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

1. Mean square B= 5.32

2. Mean square E= 16.067

3. F= 0.33

4. p-value: 0.28

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

You have the information of 3 groups of people.

Group 1

n₁= 20

X[bar]₁= 3.2

S₁²= 14.3

Group 2

n₂= 20

X[bar]₂= 4.2

S₂²= 17.2

Group 3

n₃= 20

X[bar]₃= 7.6

S₃²= 16.7

1. To manually calculate the mean square between the groups you have to calculate the sum of square between conditions and divide it by the degrees of freedom.

Df B= k-1 = 3-1= 2

Sum Square B is:

∑ni(Ÿi - Ÿ..)²

Ÿi= sample mean of sample i ∀ i= 1,2,3

Ÿ..= general mean is the mean that results of all the groups together.

General mean:

Ÿ..= (Ÿ₁ + Ÿ₂ + Ÿ₃)/ 3 = (3.2+4.2+7.6)/3 = 5

Sum Square B (Ÿ₁ - Ÿ..)² + (Ÿ₂ - Ÿ..)² + (Ÿ₃ - Ÿ..)²= (3.2 - 5)² + (4.2 - 5)² + (7.6 - 5)²= 10.64

Mean square B= Sum Square B/Df B= 10.64/2= 5.32

2. The mean square error (MSE) is the estimation of the variance error (σ_{e}^2 → S_{e} ^{2}), you have to use the following formula:

Se²=<u> (n₁-1)S₁² + -(n₂-1)S₂² + (n₃-1)S₃²</u>

                        n₁+n₂+n₃-k

Se²=<u> 19*14.3 + 19*17.2 + 19*16.7 </u>= <u>  915.8   </u>  = 16.067

                 20+20+20-3                  57

DfE= N-k = 60-3= 57

3. To calculate the value of the statistic you have to divide the MSB by MSE

F= \frac{Mean square B}{Mean square E} = \frac{5.32}{16.067} = 0.33

4. P(F_{2; 57} ≤ F) = P(F_{2; 57} ≤ 0.33) = 0.28

I hope you have a SUPER day!

3 0
2 years ago
Karen invested $2,000 in a special savings account.
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

D. $512,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Well if the balance doubles every 5 years, then dividing 40 by 5 gives us the number of times the money will double, which is 8. We can then turn this into the equation 2000(2^{8}). 2^8 can be simplified to 256. Multiply that by 2000 and we get our answer, 512000. Hope this helps!

<h2><em><u>Pls mark brainliest!</u></em></h2>
4 0
2 years ago
What’s the answer ?????? (SOMEONE PLEASE HELP)
Kamila [148]
Part A: 16x=M
Part B: 16x+TY=M
Part C: 16x=580
             /16   /16
               x=36.25
Mary worked 36 hours and 25 minutes 
5 0
3 years ago
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
Ivahew [28]

In 20 minutes, John can wrap 10 small boxes and Hank can wrap 12 small boxes. So, Hank can wrap more small boxes in 20 minutes than John can.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

John wraps;

2 small boxes = 4 minutes

1 small box = \frac{4}{2} = 2\ minutes

In 20 minutes,

20 minutes = \frac{Total\ time}{Time per box} = \frac{20}{2}

20 minutes = 10 small boxes

Hank wraps;

3 small boxes = 5 minutes

1 small box =\frac{5}{3}\ minutes

In 20 minutes = \frac{Total\ time}{Time per box} = \frac{20}{5/3}

20\ minutes=\frac{20*3}{5}\\20\ minutes=\frac{60}{5}\\20\ minutes= 12\ small\ boxes\\

In 20 minutes, John can wrap 10 small boxes and Hank can wrap 12 small boxes. So, Hank can wrap more small boxes in 20 minutes than John can.

Keywords: division, multiplication

Learn more about division at:

  • brainly.com/question/1836777
  • brainly.com/question/2115122

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
3 years ago
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