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Rasek [7]
3 years ago
7

51502194 I hate you can everyone please report him

Business
2 answers:
Assoli18 [71]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: why do you hate this person so much

Explanation:

iren [92.7K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

ill put a question he has answered in the comment section and you can do whatever you wanna do with his anwers then

Explanation:

gimme brainliest

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Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respe
Lena [83]

Answer:

$856,376.30

Explanation:

What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?

2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%

==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)

==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)

==> 100,000*(9.545454(

==> 954,545

Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.

Years  Cash-flows   PVF at 16%    Present value

1           800,000       0.86206         68964.80

2          105,000        0.74316           78031.80

2          954,545        0.74316           <u>709379.70</u>

            Total value                           <u>856,376.30</u>

8 0
3 years ago
A disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is A. The free cash flow method is not used widely in practice. B. The ter
SSSSS [86.1K]

The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.

  • So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

Hence, the Option B is correct.

Read more about this here

<em>brainly.com/question/22593826</em>

7 0
2 years ago
Calip Corporation, a merchandising company, reported the following results for October: Sales $427,000 Cost of goods sold (all v
nekit [7.7K]

Answer: $222,800

Explanation:

Given that,

Sales = $427,000

Cost of goods sold (all variable) = $173,400

Total variable selling expense = $21,200

Total fixed selling expense = $18,900

Total variable administrative expense = $9,600

Total fixed administrative expense = $36,300

Variable expenses:

= Cost of goods sold + Variable selling expense + Variable administrative expense

= $173,400 + $21,200 + $9,600

= $204,200

Contribution margin = Sales - Variable expenses

                                  = $427,000 - $204,200  

                                 = $222,800

5 0
3 years ago
The relationship between quantity supplied and the price of output is such that Group of answer choices quantity will decrease a
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

An increase in quantity will automatically lead to a reduction in price.

An increase in price will lead to an increase in quantity supplied.

Explanation:

Option “2” and “4” are correct because the increase in quantity supplied shifts the supply curve rightwards and resulting in the price falls. While the positive relationship between price and the quantity supplied leads to an increase in supply when price increases. When price increases then the producer finds more profitable to supply more quantity. Thus, in order to curb more profit, the producer supplies more quantity when price increases.

5 0
4 years ago
"If the option will cost the investor an additional $10,000, should the investor purchase the option? Enter your answer in thous
kykrilka [37]

Answer:

“Should” or “should not” depend on the cost rate of the option and the risk appetite of investors.

Explanation:

An option is a contract that allows investors to buy or sell instruments such as security, Exchanged Traded Fund or an index at a pre-determined price over a certain period of time.

If the option will cost the investor an additional $10,000 and it is the cost for an option of $10 million investment, then it cost only 0.1% additionally, but it can secure the position of this investment; then the investor should buy this option.

Vice versa, if the additional $10,000 is much more than expected profit, and even lower but significantly drop down the total profit of an investment; and the investor always wish to have a high profit regardless high risk; then he shouldn’t buy this option.

6 0
3 years ago
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