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kifflom [539]
3 years ago
10

Your friend clams that objects do not have to be thouching for a magnetic force to cause motion. How would you support your frie

nds claim? Due today
Physics
1 answer:
Leni [432]3 years ago
4 0
Yes because something that has been electrically charged can make other things move without touching them ( this is called force without contact)
Hoped this helped :)
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Match the bones with their common name.
mrs_skeptik [129]

1. clavicle = collarbone

2. vertebrae = backbone

3. scapula = shoulder blade

4. femur = thigh

5. humerus = upper arm

6. patella = kneecap

7. cranium = skull

8. tibia = lower leg

9. radius/ulna = forearm

10. phalanges = fingers/toes

7 0
3 years ago
A traditional set of cycling rollers has two identical, parallel cylinders in the rear of the device that the rear tire of the b
mars1129 [50]

Answer:

ω2  =  216.47 rad/s

Explanation:

given data

radius r1 =  460 mm

radius r2 = 46 mm

ω =  32k rad/s

solution

we know here that power generated by roller that  is

power = T. ω    ..............1

power = F × r × ω

and this force of roller on cylinder is equal and opposite force apply by roller

so power transfer equal in every cylinder so

( F × r1 × ω1)  ÷ 2 = (  F × r2 × ω2 )  ÷  2    ................2

so

ω2  =  \frac{460\times 32}{34\times 2}

ω2  =  216.47

8 0
3 years ago
Formulating a Hypothesis: Part I Since the investigative question has two variables, you need to focus on each one separately. T
Westkost [7]

Answer : The kinetic energy depends directly on the mass of a particle.

Explanation :

We know that the kinetic energy of any particle is given by :

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2

Where,

m is the mass of an object.

v is the velocity with which it is moving

Kinetic energy is due to the motion of the particle.

So, the kinetic energy of a particle is directly proportional to its mass.

Hence, the conclusion of the question is if the mass of a particle is increases then its kinetic energy also increase.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A ball with 100 J of PE is released from a height of 10 m. What will be the KE of the ball at 5
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

The kinetic energy is: 50[J]

Explanation:

The ball is having a potential energy of 100 [J], therefore

PE = [J]

The elevation is 10 [m], and at this point the ball is having only potential energy, the kinetic energy is zero.

E_{p} =m*g*h\\where:\\g= gravity[m/s^{2} ]\\m = mass [kg]\\m= \frac{E_{p} }{g*h}\\ m= \frac{100}{9.81*10}\\\\m= 1.01[kg]\\\\

In the moment when the ball starts to fall, it will lose potential energy and the potential energy will be transforme in kinetic energy.

When the elevation is 5 [m], we have a potential energy of

P_{e} =m*g*h\\P_{e} =1.01*9.81*5\\\\P_{e} = 50 [J]\\

This energy is equal to the kinetic energy, therefore

Ke= 50 [J]

8 0
3 years ago
Describe how the mass, luminosity, surface temperature, and radius of main-sequence stars change in value going from the “bottom
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

1. Least massive stars are the coolest and least luminous, lower right of main sequence, on HR diagram.  

2. Most massive are the hottest and most luminous, upper left of main sequence on Hr Diagram.  

3. The radius of stars are related to their sprectral type. having the O being the hottest upper left and M being the coolest bottom right.

4 0
3 years ago
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