Your friend clams that objects do not have to be thouching for a magnetic force to cause motion. How would you support your frie
1 answer:
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Answer:
a) see attached, a = g sin θ
b)
c) v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
Explanation:
In the attached we can see the forces on the sphere, which are the attention of the bar that is perpendicular to the movement and the weight of the sphere that is vertical at all times. To solve this problem, a reference system is created with one axis parallel to the bar and the other perpendicular to the rod, the weight of decomposing in this reference system and the linear acceleration is given by
Wₓ = m a
W sin θ = m a
a = g sin θ
b) The diagram is the same, the only thing that changes is the angle that is less
θ' = 9/2 θ
c) At this point the weight and the force of the bar are in the same line of action, so that at linear acceleration it is zero, even when the pendulum has velocity v, so it follows its path.
The easiest way to find linear speed is to use conservation of energy
Highest point
Em₀ = mg h = mg L (1-cos tea)
Lowest point
Emf = K = ½ m v²
Em₀ = Emf
g L (1-cos θ) = v² / 2
v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
Explanation:
Young' modulus is the ratio of normal stress to the longitudinal strain. Mathematically, it is given by :
Normal stress is given by force per unit area. Longitudinal strain is the change in length per unit original length.
The mathematical definition of Young's modulus is given by :
..........(1)
Where
is the change in length
F is the force
A is the area of cross section
So, the Young's modulus refers to the change in length of the object. Hence, the correct option is (b) "length".