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ad-work [718]
2 years ago
8

What is the Total expected equity financing for Amazon’s purchase of Walmart, at the assumed 50-50% equity and debt financing de

al mix provided

Business
1 answer:
Serggg [28]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct solution is "$241,356".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Share price,

P0 = 140.50

Acquisition premium,

p = 20%

Diluted shares outstanding,

N = 2,863 MM

Now,

For Amazon, the purchase price every share will be:

⇒ P=P0\times (1 + p)

On putting the values, we get

⇒     =140.50\times (1 + 20 \ percent)

⇒     =168.60

The purchase consideration will be:

= P\times N

= 168.60\times 2,863

= 482,702 \ MM

So that,

The total equity financing expected will be:

= Purchase \ consideration\times Percentage \ of \ equity \ financing

= 482,702\times  50 \ percent

= 241,351 \ MM ($)

Thus the above is the correct answer.

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3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Wanna join a pad let with me, ill send li nk,
ValentinkaMS [17]
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