Answer:
-1.5m/s²
Explanation:
Acceleration can be thought of as [Change in Velocity]/[Change in time]. To find these changes, you simply subtract the initial quantity from the final quantity.
So for this question you have:
- V_i = 110m/s
- V_f = 80m/s
- t_i = 0s
- t_f = 20s
which means that the acceleration = (80-110)/(20-0)[m/s²] = (-30/20)m/s² = -1.5m/s²
NO musical instrument produces a 'pure' tone with only a
single frequency in it.
EVERY instrument produces more or less harmonics (multiples)
in addition to the basic frequency it's playing.
The percussion instruments (drums etc) are the richest producers
of bunches of different frequencies.
Fuzzy electric guitars are next richest.
The strings and brass instruments are moderate producers of
harmonics ... I can't remember which is greater than the other.
Then come the woodwinds ... clarinet, oboe, etc.
The closest to 'pure' tones of single frequency are the sounds
made by the flute and piccolo, but even these are far from 'pure'.
The only way to get a true single-frequency sound is from an
electronic 'sine wave' generator.
The statement that describes how work and power are similar is D. you must know time and energy to calculate both.
I am not completely sure though, so I hope this helps. :)
It often requires STANDARD reaction time
