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Serjik [45]
3 years ago
15

On a coordinate plane, a line goes through points (negative 4, 0) and (0, 2).

Mathematics
2 answers:
lora16 [44]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the slope is 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

find the change in y over the change in x

2-0/0+4

you get 2/4 then simply that to 1/2

Lera25 [3.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

on edg

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I am thinking of a number.... When I divide my number by 2 and add 1, I get 13. What is my number?
dedylja [7]

Answer:

Dude go to photomath

Step-by-step explanation:

It's easy

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Taka conducts an experiment where he rolls a number cube, with sides labeled from 1 to 6, and then flips a coin. This table show
sweet [91]
The experimental probability is 1/6, and the theoretical probability is 1/4. The theoretical probability is greater than the experimental probability in this trial.-------------------Explanation:
Theoretical probability is the mathematically calculated probability of the circumstances occurring. 
There is a 1/2 chance of rolling an even number, and a 1/2 chance of flipping a coin on heads.
Since the question asks for the possibility of both happening, multiply those together to find the probability:


The theoretical probability of rolling an even number and then flipping a head is 1/4.
Now we'll focus on Taka's trials.
Experimental probability is the probability that is taken from results of a trial.
Take the results, and see if they match the criteria of rolling an even number and flipping heads.
The results that are bolded fit the criteria:1 H, 4 T, 1 H, 5 T, 2 H, 3 T, 6 T, 2 H, 3 T, 5 T, 3 H, 4 T
Taka managed to roll and flip the coin to fit the criteria 2 times out of 12. Converted into a fraction, it is 2/12. Simplified, the experimental probability is 1/6
7 0
4 years ago
Find the surface area of each figure to the nearest tenth.
Stells [14]
For the cylinder on the left-hand-side,

\bf \textit{surface area of a cylinder}\\\\
S=2\pi r(h+r)\quad 
\begin{cases}
r=radius\\
h=height\\
------\\
h=10\\
r=5
\end{cases}\implies S=2\pi (5)(10+5)

now, for the triangular prism on the right-hand-side,

notice is really just 2 triangles and 3 rectangles, stacked  up to each other at the edges.

the triangles have a base of 4, and a height of 1.5.

the rectangle on the left and the one on the right is a 6x2.5 rectangle.

the rectangle at the bottom, is a 4x6 rectangle.

adding their areas, is the area of the prism,

\bf \stackrel{two~triangles}{2\left[\cfrac{1}{2}(4)(1.5)  \right]}+\stackrel{left-right~rectangles}{2(6\cdot 2.5)}+\stackrel{bottom~rectangle}{4\cdot 6}
\\\\\\
6~~+~~30~~+~~24
7 0
4 years ago
–5x3y3 + 8x4y2 – xy5 – 2x2y4 + 8x6 + 3x2y4 – 6xy5 standard form
I am Lyosha [343]

Answer:

probably 8x6+8x4y2−5x3y3+x2y4−7xy5

Step-by-step explanation:

mathpapa lol idk i jus need points

4 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent has 14 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Ratling [72]

Answer:

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

n = 14, p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Either you sell 4 or less properties in one week, or you sell more. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X \leq 4)  + P(X > 4) = 1

We want to find P(X > 4). So

P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4)

In which

P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)

So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{14,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{14} = 0.000061

P(X = 1) = C_{14,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{13} = 0.000854

P(X = 2) = C_{14,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0056

P(X = 3) = C_{14,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0222

P(X = 4) = C_{14,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0611

So

P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.000061 + 0.000854 + 0.0056 + 0.0222 + 0.0611 = 0.0898

Finally

P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4) = 1 - 0.0898 = 0.9102

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
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