Answer:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
Explanation:
First change the units of the velocity, using these equivalents
and 

The angular acceleration
the time rate of change of the angular speed
according to:


Where
is the original velocity, in the case the velocity before starting the deceleration, and
is the final velocity, equal to zero because it has stopped.

b) To find the distance traveled in radians use the formula:


To change this result to inches, solve the angular displacement
for the distance traveled
(
is the radius).


c) The displacement is the difference between the original position and the final. But in every complete rotation of the rim, the point returns to its original position. so is needed to know how many rotations did the point in the 890.16 rad of distant traveled:

The real difference is in the 0.6667 (or 2/3) of the rotation. To find the distance between these positions imagine a triangle formed with the center of the blade (point C), the initial position (point A) and the final position (point B). The angle
is between the two sides known. Using the theorem of the cosine we can find the missing side of the the triangle(which is also the net displacement):


TLDR: It will reach a maximum when the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field vector are perpendicular to one another.
This is an example that requires you to investigate the properties that occur in electric generators; for example, hydroelectric dams produce electricity by forcing a coil to rotate in the presence of a magnetic field, generating a current.
To solve this, we need to understand the principles of electromotive forces and Lenz’ Law; changing the magnetic field conditions around anything with this potential causes an induced current in the wire that resists this change. This principle is known as Lenz’ Law, and can be described using equations that are specific to certain situations. For this, we need the two that are useful here:
e = -N•dI/dt; dI = ABcos(theta)
where “e” describes the electromotive force, “N” describes the number of loops in the coil, “dI” describes the change in magnetic flux, “dt” describes the change in time, “A” describes the area vector of the coil (this points perpendicular to the loops, intersecting it in open space), “B” describes the magnetic field vector, and theta describes the angle between the area and mag vectors.
Because the number of loops remains constant and the speed of the coils rotation isn’t up for us to decide, the only thing that can increase or decrease the emf is the change in magnetic flux, represented by ABcos(theta). The magnetic field and the size of the loop are also constant, so all we can control is the angle between the two. To generate the largest emf, we need cos(theta) to be as large as possible. To do this, we can search a graph of cos(theta) for the highest point. This occurs when theta equals 90 degrees, or a right angle. Therefore, the electromotive potential will reach a maximum when the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field vector are perpendicular to one another.
Hope this helps!
<span>1/3
The key thing to remember about an elastic collision is that it preserves both momentum and kinetic energy. For this problem I will assume the more massive particle has a mass of 1 and that the initial velocities are 1 and -1. The ratio of the masses will be represented by the less massive particle and will have the value "r"
The equation for kinetic energy is
E = 1/2MV^2.
So the energy for the system prior to collision is
0.5r(-1)^2 + 0.5(1)^2 = 0.5r + 0.5
The energy after the collision is
0.5rv^2
Setting the two equations equal to each other
0.5r + 0.5 = 0.5rv^2
r + 1 = rv^2
(r + 1)/r = v^2
sqrt((r + 1)/r) = v
The momentum prior to collision is
-1r + 1
Momentum after collision is
rv
Setting the equations equal to each other
rv = -1r + 1
rv +1r = 1
r(v+1) = 1
Now we have 2 equations with 2 unknowns.
sqrt((r + 1)/r) = v
r(v+1) = 1
Substitute the value v in the 2nd equation with sqrt((r+1)/r) and solve for r.
r(sqrt((r + 1)/r)+1) = 1
r*sqrt((r + 1)/r) + r = 1
r*sqrt(1+1/r) + r = 1
r*sqrt(1+1/r) = 1 - r
r^2*(1+1/r) = 1 - 2r + r^2
r^2 + r = 1 - 2r + r^2
r = 1 - 2r
3r = 1
r = 1/3
So the less massive particle is 1/3 the mass of the more massive particle.</span>
After looking at the transverse waves in the diagram you listed above, the one diagram that does represent the direction of particle X at the instant show in diagram number 3. The direction of the wave motion is up. The correct answer choice will be 3.