First let's find the time it takes for the first ball to land:
Acceleration is a=-g so vertical velocity is V=-gt + V1sin(30).
Position is thus
S=(-1/2)gt^2 +V1t sin(30).
Solving for t gives
t=2V1sin(30)/g
The second ball has the same position function except for the new velocity, which is given by
V2=2V1. Putting this in and solving for t2 gives
t2=4V1sin(30)/g.
It takes twice as long for the second ball to land on the ground.
The horizontal distance of ball 1 is S1 = V1t cos(30). Again we look at ball 2's distance by substituting V2=2V1 and get
S2 = 2V1t2 cos(30).
Note here I put in t2 since it will fly for that amount of time. But we already saw that
t2 = 2t1
So S2=4V1 cos(30)
That is the second ball goes 4 times further than the first one. This is because it is going twice as fast along both the horizontal and the vertical. It moves horizontally twice as fast for twice as long.
Answer:
The velocity of the cart at the bottom of the ramp is 1.81m/s, and the acceleration would be 3.30m/s^2.
Explanation:
Assuming the initial velocity to be zero, we can obtain the velocity at the bottom of the ramp using the kinematics equations:

Dividing the second equation by the first one, we obtain:

And, since
, then:

It means that the velocity at the bottom of the ramp is 1.81m/s.
We could use this data, plus any of the two initial equations, to determine the acceleration:

So the acceleration is 3.30m/s^2.
Answer:
the velocity of the point P located on the horizontal diameter of the wheel at t = 1.4 s is 
Explanation:
The free-body diagram below shows the interpretation of the question; from the diagram , the wheel that is rolling in a clockwise directio will have two velocities at point P;
- the peripheral velocity that is directed downward
along the y-axis
- the linear velocity
that is directed along the x-axis
Now;


Also,

where
(angular velocity) = 

∴ the velocity of the point P located on the horizontal diameter of the wheel at t = 1.4 s is 
Yes i does. they cause more friction <span />