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3 years ago

10

Consider a 400 mm × 400 mm window in an aircraft. For a temperature difference of 90°C from the inner to the outer surface of th

e window, calculate the heat loss rate through L

1 answer:

True [87]3 years ago

5 0

Um I think the answer for this is 10l

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A steel bar is 150 mm square and has a hot-rolled finish. It will be used in a fully reversed bending application. Sut for the s

Xelga [282]

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

Given The bar is square and has a hot-rolled finish. The loading is fully reversed bending.

Tensile Strength

Sut: 600 MPa

Maximum temperature

Tmax: 500 °C

Bar side dimension

b: 150 mm

Alternating stress

σa: 100 MPa

Reliability

R: 0.999 Note 1.

Assumptions Infinite life is required and is obtainable since this ductile steel will have an endurance limit. A reliability factor of 99.9% will be used.

Solution See Excel file Ex06-01.xls.

1 Since no endurance-limit or fatigue strength information is given, we will estimate S'e based on the ultimate tensile strength using equation 6.5a.

S'e: 300 MPa = 0.5 * Sut

2 The loading is bending so the load factor from equation 6.7a is

Cload: 1

3 The part size is greater than the test specimen and the part is not round, so an equivalent diameter based on its 95% stressed area must be determined and used to find the size factor. For a rectangular section in nonrotating bending, the A95 area is defined in Figure 6-25c and the equivalent diameter is found from equation 6.7d

A95: 1125 mm2 = 0.05 * b * b Note 2.

dequiv: 121.2 mm = SQRT(A95val / 0.0766)

and the size factor is found for this equivalent diameter from equation 6.7b, to be

Csize: 0.747 = 1.189 * dequiv^-0.097

4 The surface factor is found from equation 6.7e and the data in Table 6-3 for the specified hot-rolled finish.

Table 6-3 constants

A: 57.7

b: -0.718 Note 3.

Csurf: 0.584 = Acoeff * Sut^bCoeff

5 The temperature factor is found from equation 6.7f :

Ctemp: 0.710 = 1 - 0.0058 * (Tmax - 450)

6 The reliability factor is taken from Table 6-4 for R = 0.999 and is

Creliab: 0.753

7 The corrected endurance limit Se can now be calculated from equation 6.6:

Se: 69.94 MPa = Cload * Csize * Csurf * Ctemp *

Creliab * Sprme

Let

Se: 70 MPa

8 To create the S-N diagram, we also need a value for the estimated strength Sm at 103 cycles based on equation 6.9 for bending loading.

Sm: 540 MPa = 0.9 * Sut

9 The estimated S-N diagram is shown in Figure 6-34 with the above values of Sm and Se. The expressions of the two lines are found from equations 6.10a through 6.10c assuming that Se begins at 106 cycles.

b: -0.2958 Note 4.

a: 4165.7

Plotting Sn as a function of N from equation 6.10a

N Sn (MPa)

1000 540 =aa*B73^bb

2000 440

4000 358

8000 292

16000 238

32000 194

64000 158

128000 129

256000 105

512000 85

1000000 70

FIGURE 6-34. S-N Diagram and Alternating Stress Line Showing Failure Point

10 The number of cycles of life for any alternating stress level can now be found from equation 6.10a by replacing σa for Sn.

At N = 103 cycles,

Sn3: 540 MPa = aa * 1000^bb

At N = 106 cycles,

Sn6: 70 MPa = aa * 1000000^bb

The figure above shows the intersection of the alternating stress line (σa = 100 MPa) with the failure line at N = 3.0 x 105 cycles.

8 0

3 years ago

A charge of +2.00 μC is at the origin and a charge of –3.00 μC is on the y axis at y = 40.0 cm . (a) What is the potential at po

Nimfa-mama [501]

a) Potential in A: -2700 V

b) Potential difference: -26,800 V

c) Work: $4.3\cdot 10^{-15} J$

Explanation:

a)

The electric potential at a distance r from a single-point charge is given by:

$V(r)=\frac{kq}{r}$

where

$k=8.99\cdot 10^9 Nm^{-2}C^{-2}$ is the Coulomb's constant

q is the charge

r is the distance from the charge

In this problem, we have a system of two charges, so the total potential at a certain point will be given by the algebraic sum of the two potentials.

Charge 1 is

$q_1=+2.00\mu C=+2.00\cdot 10^{-6}C$

and is located at the origin (x=0, y=0)

Charge 2 is

$q_2=-3.00 \mu C=-3.00\cdot 10^{-6}C$

and is located at (x=0, y = 0.40 m)

Point A is located at (x = 0.40 m, y = 0)

The distance of point A from charge 1 is

$r_{1A}=0.40 m$

So the potential due to charge 2 is

$V_1=\frac{(8.99\cdot 10^9)(+2.00\cdot 10^{-6})}{0.40}=+4.50\cdot 10^4 V$

The distance of point A from charge 2 is

$r_{2A}=\sqrt{0.40^2+0.40^2}=0.566 m$

So the potential due to charge 1 is

$V_2=\frac{(8.99\cdot 10^9)(-3.00\cdot 10^{-6})}{0.566}=-4.77\cdot 10^4 V$

Therefore, the net potential at point A is

$V_A=V_1+V_2=+4.50\cdot 10^4 - 4.77\cdot 10^4=-2700 V$

b)

Here we have to calculate the net potential at point B, located at

(x = 0.40 m, y = 0.30 m)

The distance of charge 1 from point B is

$r_{1B}=\sqrt{(0.40)^2+(0.30)^2}=0.50 m$

So the potential due to charge 1 at point B is

$V_1=\frac{(8.99\cdot 10^9)(+2.00\cdot 10^{-6})}{0.50}=+3.60\cdot 10^4 V$

The distance of charge 2 from point B is

$r_{2B}=\sqrt{(0.40)^2+(0.40-0.30)^2}=0.412 m$

So the potential due to charge 2 at point B is

$V_2=\frac{(8.99\cdot 10^9)(-3.00\cdot 10^{-6})}{0.412}=-6.55\cdot 10^4 V$

Therefore, the net potential at point B is

$V_B=V_1+V_2=+3.60\cdot 10^4 -6.55\cdot 10^4 = -29,500 V$

So the potential difference is

$V_B-V_A=-29,500 V-(-2700 V)=-26,800 V$

c)

The work required to move a charged particle across a potential difference is equal to its change of electric potential energy, and it is given by

$W=q\Delta V$

where

q is the charge of the particle

$\Delta V$ is the potential difference

In this problem, we have:

$q=-1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C$ is the charge of the electron

$\Delta V=-26,800 V$ is the potential difference

Therefore, the work required on the electron is

$W=(-1.6\cdot 10^{-19})(-26,800)=4.3\cdot 10^{-15} J$

4 0

3 years ago

Are front-end engineers starting to decline in China?

laiz [17]

Yes. They are declining in China. Very fast

7 0

3 years ago

Paint can shaker mechanisms are common in paint and hardware stores. While they do a good job of mixing the paint, they are also

Ymorist [56]

Answer:

A good design for a portable device to mix paint minimizing the shaking forces and vibrations while still effectively mixing the paint. Is:

The best design is one with centripetal movement. Instead of vertical or horizontal movement. With a container and system of holding structures made of materials that could absorb the vibration effectively.

Explanation:

First of all centripetal movement would be friendlier to our objective as it would not shake the can or the machine itself with disruptive vibrations. Also, we would have to use materials with a good grade of force absorption to eradicate the transmission of the movement to the rest of the structure. Allowing the reduction of the shaking forces while maintaining it effective in the process of mixing.

6 0

3 years ago

As project manager, you approve a team member’s request to change the order of their tasks because they think it will be more ef

Oduvanchick [21]

The project is going to scope if the situation happens. Option A is correct.

<h3 /><h3>What is the function of a project manager?</h3>

Project managers are in charge of organizing, planning, and guiding the execution of certain projects for an organization .

As the project manager, you grant a team member's request to rearrange their work in a way they believe will increase productivity.

However, this modification interferes with another team member's workflow since they now have to complete two more activities that are unrelated to the project's objective. The project will be within its scope.

Hence option A is correct.

To learn more about the project manager refer;

brainly.com/question/15404120

#SPJ1

6 0

2 years ago