By applying the formulas of present and future values of annuity we can solve this problem. In this mortgage problem, first we have to find loan amount after the down payment. It is 699,000 - 699,000 * 0.2 = 559,200$. We have to set it as PV (Present Value) of annuity. Using the PV formula ![PV = A \frac{[1- \frac{1}{(1+r)^{N}}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PV%20%3D%20A%20%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20)
, we first find A, which is an annual payment. Exact calculation with mortgage calculator gives us A = 33,866.56$. After finding it, plugging this number into FV (Future Value) formula ![FV = A\frac{[(1+r)^{N}-1]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20FV%20%3D%20A%5Cfrac%7B%5B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D-1%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%20)
, we find the value of the future value and it is 1,185,329.66$. And the total financial charge is 1,185,329.66 - 559,200 = 626,129.66$
The angle that is obtuse is 1, because it is greater than 90°.
Hope this helps and have a nice day:)
The graphs of the given equations are parallel.
<h3>What is the slope-intercept form of a line?</h3>
The slope-intercept form of a line is y = mx +c where m is the slope of the line and c is the y-intercept.
The given equations are y = x +10 and y = x+5.
The equations are in the slope-intercept form of y = mx +b.
Therefore, the slopes of both lines are 1.
Two lines are parallel if they have the same slope.
Therefore, the graphs of the given equations are parallel.
To learn more about the slope-intercept form of a line, click here:
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Answer:
16
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the 1st part of your answer be x
, so the 2nd part will be 40-x
. From the given information, we can write the equation: (1/4)x = (3/8) × (40-x)
. We can simplify this into (1/4)x = (120-3x)/8
; 8x = 480-12x
; 8x+12x = 480
; 20x = 480
; x = 480/20; x = 24
Therefore, the 1st part = 24
Plug this into your 40-x equation to get: 40 - 24 = 16
