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garri49 [273]
3 years ago
11

Consider a mild steel specimen with yield strength of 43.5 ksi and Young's modulus of 29,000 ksi. It is stretched up to a point

where the strain in the specimen is 0.2% (or 0.002). If the specimen is unloaded (i.e. load reduces to zero), the residual strain (or permanent set) is: 0.05% 0.1% 0% 0.2%
Engineering
1 answer:
mezya [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

0.05%

Explanation:

From the question, we have;

The yield strength of the mild steel, \sigma _c = 43.5 ksi

Young's modulus of elasticity, ∈ = 29,000 ksi

The total strain, \epsilon _c = 0.2% = 0.002

The inelatic strain \epsilon_c^{in} is given as follows;

\epsilon_c^{in} = \epsilon _c - \sigma _c/∈

Therefore, we have;

\epsilon_c^{in} = 0.002 - 43.5/(29,000) = 0.0005

Therefore, the inelastic strain, \epsilon_c^{in} = 0.0005 = 0.05%

Taking the inelastic strain as the residual strain, we have;

The residual strain = 0.05%

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The drag force, Fd, imposed by the surrounding air on a
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

a)  23.551 hp

b)  516.89 hp

Explanation:

<u>given:</u>

F_{d} =\frac{1}{2} C_{d} A_{p} V^{2} \\V_{a}=25 m/hr-->25*\frac{5280}{3600} =36.67ft/s\\V_{b}=70 m/hr-->70*\frac{5280}{3600} =102.67ft/s\\\\C_{d}=.28\\A=25 ft^2\\p=.075lb/ft^2

<u>required:</u>

the power in hp

<u>solution:</u>

(F_{d})_{a}  =\frac{1}{2} C_{d} A_{p} V_{a} ^{2}.............(1)

by substituting in the equation (1)

         =353.27 lbf

(F_{d})_{b}  =\frac{1}{2} C_{d} A_{p} V_{b} ^{2}..........(2)

by substituting in the equation (2)

         = 2769.29 lbf

power is defined by

             P=F.V

     P_{a}=353.27*36.67

           =12954.411 lbf.ft/s

           =12954.411*.001818

           =23.551 hp

      P_{a}=2769.29*102.67

           = 284323 lbf.ft/s

           = 284323*.001818

           = 516.89 hp

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Answer:i can not see it

Explanation:

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How does heat conduction differ from convection?
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Explanation:

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2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
how is friction losses in pipes reduced? a. decrease the pipe diameter b. increase the length of the pipes. c. decrease the leng
Citrus2011 [14]

Friction losses in pipes can be reduced by decreasing the length of the pipes, reducing the surface roughness of the pipes, and increasing the pipe diameter. Thus, options (c),(e), and (f) hold correct answers.

Friction loss is a measure of the amount of energy a piping system loses because flowing fluids meet resistance. As fluids flow through the pipes, they carry energy with them. Unfortunately, whenever there is resistance to the flow rate, it diverts fluids, and energy escapes. These opposing forces result in friction loss in pipes.

Friction loss in pipes can decrease the efficiency of the functions of pipes. These are a few ways by which friction loss in pipes can be reduced and the efficiency of the piping system can be boosted:

  • <u><em>Decrease the length of the pipes</em></u>: By decreasing pipe lengths and avoiding the use of sharp turns, fittings, and tees, whenever possible result in a more natural path for fluids to flow.
  • <u><em>Reduce the surface roughness of the pipes</em></u>:  By reducing the interior surface roughness of pipes, a smooth and clearer path is provided for liquids to flow.
  • <u><em>Increase the pipe diameter: </em></u>By widening the diameters of pipes, it is ensured that fluids squeeze through pipes easily.

You can learn more about friction losses at

brainly.com/question/13348561

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
Un mol de gas ideal realiza un trabajo de 3000 J sobre su entorno, cuando se expande de manera isotermica a una temperatura de 5
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Dado que

W = nRT ln (Vf / Vi)

W = 3000J

R = 8,314 JK-1mol-1

T = 58 + 273 = 331 K

Vf = desconocido

Vi = 25 L

W / nRT = ln (Vf / Vi)

W / nRT = 2.303 log (Vf / Vi)

W / nRT * 1 / 2.303 = log (Vf / Vi)

Vf / Vi = Antilog (W / nRT * 1 / 2.303)

Vf = Antilog (W / nRT * 1 / 2.303) * Vi

Vf = Antilog (3000/1 * 8,314 * 331 * 1 / 2,303) * 25

Vf = 74,4 litros

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