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3 years ago

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Physics

1 answer:

gladu [14]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$g=16.31\ m/s^2$

Explanation:

Given that,

The length of the pendulum, l = 2 m

The period of the pendulum, T = 2.2 s

The formula for the time period of a pendulum is given by :

$T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}}$

$T^2=4\pi ^2\dfrac{l}{g}\\\\g=\dfrac{4\pi ^2l}{T^2}\\\\g=\dfrac{4\pi ^2\times 2}{(2.2)^2}\\\\g=16.31\ m/s^2$

So, the free fall acceleration is $16.31\ m/s^2$ .

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A flat loop of wire consisting of a single turn of cross-sectional area 8.20 cm2 is perpendicular to a magnetic field that incre

olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

The induced current is $I = 6.25*10^{-4} \ A$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The number of turns is $N = 1$

The cross-sectional area is $A = 8.20 cm^2 = 8.20 * 10^{-4} \ m^2$

The initial magnetic field is $B_i = 0.500 \ T$

The magnetic field at time = 1.02 s is $B_t = 2.60 \ T$

The resistance is $R = 2.70\ \Omega$

The induced emf is mathematically represented as

$\epsilon = - N * \frac{ d\phi }{dt}$

The negative sign tells us that the induced emf is moving opposite to the change in magnetic flux

Here $d\phi$ is the change in magnetic flux which is mathematically represented as

$d \phi = dB * A$

Where dB is the change in magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

$dB = B_t - B_i$

substituting values

$dB = 2.60 - 0.500$

$dB = 2.1 \ T$

Thus

$d \phi = 2.1 * 8.20 *10^{-4}$

$d \phi = 1.722*10^{-3} \ weber$

$|\epsilon| = 1 * \frac{ 1.722*10^{-3}}{1.02}$

$|\epsilon| = 1.69 *10^{-3} \ V$

The induced current i mathematically represented as

$I = \frac{\epsilon}{ R }$

substituting values

$I = \frac{1.69*10^{-3}}{ 2.70 }$

$I = 6.25*10^{-4} \ A$

7 0

4 years ago

Two identical conducting spheres A and B carry equal charge. They are separated by a distance much larger than their diameters.

VashaNatasha [74]

What a delightful little problem !
Here's how I see it:

When 'C' is touched to 'A', charge flows to 'C' until the two of them are equally charged. So now, 'A' has half of its original charge, and 'C' has the other half.

Then, when 'C' is touched to 'B', charge flows to it until the two of them are equally charged. How much is that ? Well, just before they touch, 'C' has half of an original charge, and 'B' has a full one, so 1/4 of an original charge flows from 'B' to 'C', and then each of them has 3/4 of an original charge.

To review what we have now: 'A' has 1/2 of its original charge, and 'B' has 3/4 of it.

The force between any two charges is:

F = (a constant) x (one charge) x (the other one) / (the distance between them)².

For 'A' and 'B', the distance doesn't change, so we can leave that out of our formula.

The original force between them was 3 = (some constant) x (1 charge) x (1 charge).

The new force between them is F = (the same constant) x (1/2) x (3/4) .

Divide the first equation by the second one, and you have a proportion:

3 / F = 1 / ( 1/2 x 3/4 )

Cross-multiply this proportion:

3 (1/2 x 3/4) = F

F = 3/2 x 3/4 = 9/8 = 1.125 newton.

That's my story, and I'm sticking to it.

5 0

3 years ago

What is the definition of pe

Reika [66]

The definition of P.E which stands for physical education is instruction that ranges in many areas to improve performance and management in athletic games. The definition of sports is an activity that requires skill and physical exertion of a team or an individual competing against others for fun or entertainment. I believe these are similar because without physical education kids cannot excel in their sports. P.E will help prepare them for this.However they are different because sports are solely focused on one topic and try to perfect that, physical education gives you many different things to work on.

8 0

3 years ago

Which rational number could be graphed between 0 and 1?A number line going from negative 5 to positive 3 in increments of 1.Nega

vovikov84 [41]

In order to find which rational number is between 0 and 1, let's convert them into their decimal form:

$\begin{gathered} \text{negative one-half:} \\ -\frac{1}{2}=-0.5 \\ \\ \text{one}-\text{fourth:} \\ \frac{1}{4}=0.25 \\ \\ \text{three}-\text{halves:} \\ 3\cdot\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2}=1.5 \\ \\ 1.75 \end{gathered}$

Looking at the numbers in their decimal form, we can see that the number between 0 and 1 is one-fourth, therefore the correct option is the second one.

7 0

1 year ago

A bin is given a push across a horizontal surface. The bin has a mass m, the push gives it an initial speed of 1.60 m/s, and the

emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

The bin moves 0.87 m before it stops.

Explanation:

If we analyze the situation and apply the law of conservation of energy to this case, we get:

Energy Dissipated through Friction = Change in Kinetic Energy of Bin (Loss)

F d = (0.5)(m)(Vi² - Vf²)

where,

F = Frictional Force = μR

but, R = Normal Reaction = Weight of Bin = mg

Therefore, F = μmg

Hence, the equation becomes:

μmg d = (0.5)(m)(Vi² - Vf²)

μg d = (0.5)(Vi² - Vf²)

d = (0.5)(Vi² - Vf²)/μg

where,

Vf = Final Velocity = 0 m/s (Since, bin finally stops)

Vi = Initial Velocity = 1.6 m/s

μ = coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.15

g = 9.8 m/s²

d = distance moved by bin before coming to stop = ?

Therefore,

d = (0.5)[(1.6 m/s)² - (0 m/s)²]/(0.15)(9.8 m/s²)

d = 0.87 m

5 0

3 years ago