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asambeis [7]
4 years ago
12

Given a mortgage of $48,000 for 15 years with a rate of 11%, what are the total finance charges?

Mathematics
2 answers:
geniusboy [140]4 years ago
8 0
I believe it is C....I could always be wrong...but i used a mortgage calculator :) <span />
Bess [88]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option A

Step-by-step explanation:

M = P \frac{(r (1+r)^n}{(1+r)^{n-1} }\\= 48,000 \frac{(0.11 (1+0.11)^15}{(1+0.11)^{15-1} }\\\\= 6576\\

The total finance charges

= 48,000 + 6,576\\= 54, 576\\

The correct answer is option A

You might be interested in
Artemis seeks knowledge of the width of Orion's Belt, which is a pattern of stars in the Orion constellation. She has previously
Verdich [7]

Answer:

Orion's belt width is 184 light years

Step-by-step explanation:

So we want to find the distance between Alnitak and Mintaka, which is the Orions belts

Let the distance between the Alnitak and Mintaka be x,

Then applying cosine

c²=a²+b²—2•a•b•Cosθ

The triangle is formed by the 736 light-years and 915 light years

Artemis from Alnitak is

a = 736lightyear

Artemis from Mintaka is

b = 915 light year

The angle between Alnitak and Mintaka is θ=3°

Then,

Applying the cosine rule

c²=a²+b²—2•a•b•Cosθ

c² =736² + 915² - 2×, 736×915×Cos3

c² = 541,696 + 837,225 - 1,345,034.1477702404

c² = 33,886.85222975954

c = √33,886.85222975954

c = 184.0838184897 light years

c = 184.08 light years

So, to the nearest light year, Orion's belt width is 184 light years

3 0
3 years ago
The sum of 6 times a position number and 1 is the same as the sauare of 1 less than the number
stepan [7]
If the number is x, then:
6x+1= (x-1)^2

Now we just need to simplify it
6x+1=(x-1)*(x-1)
6x+1=x^2-2x+1
8x=x^2
8=x

The number is 8.

To check the answer
6*8+1=7^2
49=49
correct :)
5 0
3 years ago
Substitute ×=3in the following equation to find y<br>5y - 2x=9​
Alexxx [7]

Answer:

y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

5y-2(3)=9

5y-6=9

+6       +6

5y=15

/5    /5

y=3

6 0
3 years ago
The probability distribution for the rate of return on an investment is
babymother [125]

Answer:

a)0.7

b) 10.03

c)  0.0801

Step-by-step explanation:

Rate of return   Probability

9.5                           0.1

9.8                           0.2

10                             0.3

10.2                          0.3

10.6                          0.1

a.

P(Rate of return is at least 10%)=P(R=10)+P(R=10.2)+P(R=10.6)

P(Rate of return is at least 10%)=0.3+0.3+0.1

P(Rate of return is at least 10%)=0.7

b)

Expected rate of return=E(x)=sum(x*p(x))

Rate of return(x)   Probability(p(x))    x*p(x)

9.5                           0.1                       0.95

9.8                           0.2                      1.96

10                             0.3                        3

10.2                          0.3                        3.06

10.6                          0.1                       1.06

Expected rate of return=E(x)=sum(x*p(x))

Expected rate of return=0.95+1.96+3+3.06+1.06=10.03

c)

variance of the rate of return=V(x)=sum(x^2p(x))-[sum(x*p(x))]^2

Rate of return(x)   Probability(p(x))    x*p(x)    x²*p(x)

9.5                           0.1                       0.95       9.025

9.8                           0.2                      1.96         19.208

10                             0.3                       3             30

10.2                          0.3                       3.06        31.212

10.6                          0.1                       1.06         11.236

sum[x²*p(x)]=9.025+19.208+30+31.212+11.236=100.681

variance of the rate of return=V(x)=sum(x²*p(x))-[sum(x*p(x))]²

variance of the rate of return=V(x)=100.681-(10.03)²

variance of the rate of return=V(x)=100.681-100.6009

variance of the rate of return=V(x)=0.0801

6 0
3 years ago
Select the simplification that accurately explains the following statement.
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^\frac{1}{4} \times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}=2^{(\frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4} )}=2^{1}=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4

We have too choose the correct simplification for the given statement.

Consider (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4

Using property of exponents, (a^m)^n=a^m\times a^m\times a^m\times ....\times (n\ times)

We have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^\frac{1}{4} \times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}

Again applying property of exponents  a^m\times a^m=a^{n+m}

We have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{(\frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4} )}

Simplify, we have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{\frac{4}{4}}

we get,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{1}=2

Thus, (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2

Option (b) is correct.

   

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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