Answer:
I think it's true
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: b) rolled three times, number of 2s rolled
d) rolled twice, number of odds rolled
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
A binomial experiment must meet the following criteria:
- There must be a fixed number of trials (rolls)
- Each trial (roll) is independent of the others
- There are only two outcomes (success or fail)
- The probability of each outcome remains constant from trial to trial
a) rolled twice --> satisfies #1 & #2 (n = 2)
X is the sum --> fails #3 (more than two outcomes)
b) rolled three times --> satisfies #1 & #2 (n = 3)
X is the number of 2s rolled --> satisfies #3 & #4 (P success = 1/6)
c) rolled an unknown number of times - fails #1
d) rolled twice --> satisfies #1 & #2 (n = 2)
X is the number of odds rolled --> satisfies #3 & #4 (P success = 1/2)
Let's try this.
First, we have the absolute value of -4(-2)-8, or the absolute value of 8-8, so 0.
Let's forget about that, now. It's 0, it adds no value. Let's not worry about it.
For the next, we see the absolute value of -1-(-2)^2
Or:
-1-4, or -5.
Next is 2(-2)^2, or 2(4) = 8.
Therefore, we have -5+8 =3.
If you see any errors, let me know.
Otherwise, I hope this helps!
If you're referring to pence and pounds (GBP), then you would have 12p/100p (since 100p = 1GBP), reduce to the lowest value by dividing, 12/100 = 6/50 = 3/25, then divide by 3 since you have 3<span>£ and you get 1/25. Convert 1/25 to get your percent of 4%.</span>
