Answer:a) P = Po + rho×h×g
b) P = 5.4 × 10^9 pa
c) F = P/A = (Po + rho×h×g)/A
d) 1.174×10^11N
Explanation: Using the formula
P = Po + rho×h×g
P = 1.0 x 10^5 + 1000 × 5.5 × 9.81
P = 5.4 × 10^9pa
The magnitude of the force exerted by water on the top of the person's head F at the depth h in terms of P
F = P/A = (Po + rho×h×g)/A
Using the above formula
Where A = 0.046m^2
F = P/ A = 5.4×10^9/0.046
F = 1.174×10^11N
Answer:
Astronomer Edmond Halley
Explanation:
The astronomical unit using the transit of venus
The underlying principle behind Halley's method is called parallax
The maximum value of θ of such the ropes (with a maximum tension of 5,479 N) will be able to support the beam without snapping is:

We can apply the first Newton's law in x and y-direction.
If we do a free body diagram of the system we will have:
x-direction
All the forces acting in this direction are:
(1)
Where:
- T(1) is the tension due to the rope 1
- T(2) is the tension due to the rope 2
Here we just conclude that T(1) = T(2)
y-direction
The forces in this direction are:
(2)
Here W is the weight of the steel beam.
We equal it to zero because we need to find the maximum angle at which the ropes will be able to support the beam without snapping.
Knowing that T(1) = T(2) and W = mg, we have:



T(1) must be equal to 5479 N, so we have:


Therefore, the maximum angle allowed is θ = 37.01°.
You can learn more about tension here:
brainly.com/question/12797227
I hope it helps you!
Answer:
The primary effects of earthquakes are ground shaking, ground rupture, landslides, tsunamis, and liquefaction. Fires are probably the single most important secondary effect of earthquakes.
Explanation:
A) d. 10T
When a charged particle moves at right angle to a uniform magnetic field, it experiences a force whose magnitude os given by

where q is the charge of the particle, v is the velocity, B is the strength of the magnetic field.
This force acts as a centripetal force, keeping the particle in a circular motion - so we can write

which can be rewritten as

The velocity can be rewritten as the ratio between the lenght of the circumference and the period of revolution (T):

So, we get:

We see that this the period of revolution is directly proportional to the mass of the particle: therefore, if the second particle is 10 times as massive, then its period will be 10 times longer.
B) 
The frequency of revolution of a particle in uniform circular motion is

where
f is the frequency
T is the period
We see that the frequency is inversely proportional to the period. Therefore, if the period of the more massive particle is 10 times that of the smaller particle:
T' = 10 T
Then its frequency of revolution will be:
