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strojnjashka [21]
2 years ago
5

Please any one help me

Physics
1 answer:
Hatshy [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Which one are we supposed to do

Explanation:

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How to solve for time given distance and velocity
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Answer:

Well, I think you're talking about kinematics, especially uniform rectilinear motion. We know that there is a specific equation for that:

S = Vt + S0

With S being the distance, V the velocity, t the time and S0 the initial distance (initial displacement).

From this you can calculate t, if that's what you want.

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2 years ago
In general, the ________ of a simple machine is the ratio of the distance over which the force is applied to the distance over w
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Mechanical advantage, i hope i helped you!
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3 years ago
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What is the kinetic energy of an object with a mass of 50kg and is and it is traveling at a rate of 60m/s.
liq [111]

Answer:

90,000 J

Explanation:

Kinetic energy can be found using the following formula.

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where <em>m </em>is the mass in kilograms and <em>v</em> is the velocity in m/s.

We know the object has a mass of 50 kilograms. We also know it is a traveling at a rate of 60 m/s. Velocity is the speed of something, so the velocity of the object is 60 m/s.

<em>m</em>=50

<em>v</em>=60

Substitute these values into the formula.

KE=\frac{1}{2}*50*60^2

First, evaluate the exponent: 60^2. 60^2 is the same as multiplying 60, 2 times.

60^2=60*60=3,600

KE=\frac{1}{2}*50*3,600

Multiply 50 and 3,600

KE=\frac{1}{2}*180,000

Multiply 1/2 and 3,600, or divide 3,600 by 2.

KE=90,000

Add appropriate units. Kinetic energy uses Joules, or J.

KE=90,000 Joules

The kinetic energy of the object is 90,000 Joules

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3 years ago
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The Mechanical Advantage is always greater than 1 .

Example:  a nut-cracker, a garlic press

-- Class III lever

The effort is between the fulcrum and the load.

The Mechanical Advantage is always less than 1 .

I can't think of an example right now.

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<span>4.0 m/s2


it's 9 squared divided by 6</span>
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