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allochka39001 [22]
3 years ago
10

if one pound of organic peaches cost $1.82 how much does would it cost for 2.6 pounds? round final answer

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fynjy0 [20]3 years ago
8 0

1.82*2.6= 4.73


i hope this helped!

Readme [11.4K]3 years ago
6 0

Since 1 pound costs $1.82, and we are getting 2.6 of these pounds, we are going to multiply the cost of 1 pound by 2.6, or 1.82 * 2.6, which equals 4.732, which rounds to $4.73.


Represented mathematically, this would be:

\dfrac{1 \,\textrm{pound}}{\$1.82} = \dfrac{2.6 \,\textrm{pounds}}{x}

x = \dfrac{2.6\,\textrm{pounds}}{\frac{1 \,\textrm{pound}}{\$1.82}}

x = 2.6\,\textrm{pounds} \cdot \dfrac{\$1.82}{1 \,\textrm{pound}}

x = 2.6 \cdot \$1.82

\boxed{x = \$4.73}

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Answer:

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For each race, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the person has a crash, or the person does not. The probability of having a crash during a race is independent of whether there was a crash in any other race. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

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This means that p = 0.04

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This is:

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When n = 30

We have that:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{30,0}.(0.04)^{0}.(0.96)^{30} = 0.2939

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0.7061 = 70.61% probability she will have her first crash within the first 30 races she runs this season

7 0
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