Answer:
A) Year 1 cost of goods sold
B) Year 2 cost of goods sold
D) Year 2 beginning inventory
Explanation:
A) Year 1 expense of merchandise sold : The Current year cost of Goods Sold is processed by deducting finishing stock from Opening Inventory and Purchases made during the year. So in the event that the completion stock isn't right, at that point the result of above calculation will not be right so the Year 1 expense of merchandise sold for example (Current year cost of Goods Sold) will be inaccurate.
D) Year 2 starting stock: year 2 starting stock is equivalent to year 1 completion stock. So on the off chance that off-base stock estimation is made at end of earlier year, at that point current year opening worth will be carried on as off-base.
B) Year 2 expense of merchandise sold: The explanation is same as ans q(i.e. Year 1 expense of merchandise sold) as off-base convey forward opening stock worth will bring about wrong calculation of cost of products sold for year 2.
Answer:
b. the increase in the interest rate creates an income effect that is greater than the substitution effect.
Explanation:
Interest rate can be regarded as amount that is been charged by lender for using an assets, this asset could be cash, goods, and this is usually display as a percentage of the lent principal.
The income effect gives shows how increased purchasing power can impact consumption, substitution effect on other hands, shows how changing relative income as well prices impact consumption. Both economics concepts give expression of changes that occur in the market as well as how this changes impact consumption patterns as regards consumer goods and services.
It should be noted that the increase in the interest rate creates an income effect that is greater than the substitution effect.
Answer:
The answer is Relational Database
Explanation:
Answer:
a. 10.14%
Explanation:
WACC = wE*rE + wP*rP + wD*rD(1-tax) whereby;
w= weight of...
r = cost of..
Find the market values;
Common equity(E) = 5,000,000* 8 = 40,000,000
Preferred stock(P) = 10,000,000
Debt (D) = 100,000 *1000 *0.96 = 96,000,000
Total value = 146,000,000
Therefore;
wE= 0.2740
wP = 0.0685
wD = 0.6575
Cost of capital;
rE = 19% or 0.19
rP = 15% or 0.15
rD = 9% or 0.09
WACC = (0.2740*0.19) + (0.0685 * 0.15) + [0.6575*0.09(1-0.34)]
WACC = 0.0521 + 0.0103 + 0.0391
WACC = 0.1015 or about 10.14%