3 years ago

PLEASE HELP!!! I WOULD REALLY APPRECIATE IT!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

AlladinOne [14]3 years ago

4 0

The answer is A because if there’s at least six then it’s have to be 1/20

zimovet [89]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

because you have to multiple

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP! 25 PTS!!

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

Solution given:

$f(x)=\frac{x-16}{x^2+6x-40}$

$g(x)=\frac{1}{x+10}$

now

f(x)+g(x)= $\frac{x-16}{x^2+6x-40}+\frac{1}{x+10}$ ....(1)

now

factoring x²+6x-40

we get

x²+10x-4x-40

x(x+10)-4(x+10)

(x+10)(x-4)

now substituting in equation 1 ,we get

f(x)+g(x)= $\frac{x-16}{(x+10)(x-4)}+\frac{1}{x+10}$

taking l.c.m

= $\frac{(x-16)+(x-4)}{(x-10)(x-4)}$

=now

opening bracket

$\frac{x-16+x-4}{x²-10x-4x+40}$

= $\frac{2x-20}{x²+6x-40}$

answer is :

B. $\bold b\frac{2x-20}{x^2+6x-40}$

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