Answer:
Explanation:
We know that , If the frictional force on a system is zero , then the total energy of a system will be conserved.
By using energy conservation
KE₁ + U₁ = KE₂ + U₂
KE₁=Kinetic energy at location 1
U₁ =Potential energy at location 1
KE₂=Kinetic energy at location 2
U₂=Potential energy at location 2
Therefore, Raymond is thinking in a right way.
While ionic bonds join metals to nonmetals, and covalent bonds join nonmetals to nonmetals, metallic bonds are responsible for the bondingbetween metal atoms. In metallic bonds, the valence electrons from the s and p orbitals of the interacting metal atoms delocalize.
I hope that this answer helps you out
(a) The plastic rod has a length of L=1.3m. If we divide by 8, we get the length of each piece:

(b) The center of the rod is located at x=0. This means we have 4 pieces of the rod on the negative side of x-axis, and 4 pieces on the positive side. So, starting from x=0 and going towards positive direction, we have: piece 5, piece 6, piece 7 and piece 8. Each piece is 0.1625 m long. Therefore, the center of piece 5 is at 0.1625m/2=0.0812 m. And the center of piece 6 will be shifted by 0.1625m with respect to this:

(c) The total charge is

. To get the charge on each piece, we should divide this value by 8, the number of pieces:

(d) We have to calculate the electric field at x=0.7 generated by piece 6. The charge on piece 6 is the value calculated at point (c):

If we approximate piece 6 as a single charge, the electric field is given by

where

and d is the distance between the charge (center of piece 6, located at 0.2437m) and point a (located at x=0.7m). Therefore we have

poiting towards the center of piece 6, since the charge is negative.
(e) missing details on this question.
Answer:
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Image result for What is the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle below
One way to solve this is to use Pythagorean theorem: the square of one leg of triangle plus square of other leg of the triangle equals c the hypotenuse (longest side of triangle). You might see this as the formula a^2 + b^2 = c^2, where a and b are the legs and c is the hypotenuse.Nov 23, 2016
Explanation:
Am infinite slew rate means that the changes in the output voltage occur immensely when the input voltage changes.
Slew rate is measurement of the response of an operational amplifier. For an ideal operational amplifier, time delay is negligible. Hence it has an infinite slew rate.
In simpler terms it means that it can provide output voltage simultaneously with the input voltage changes.
Hope this helps :)