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3 years ago

Do magnetic field lines ever start or end anywhere?

Physics

1 answer:

nevsk [136]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The lines of the field of a magnet don't begin or stop at anyplace, they generally make shut circles or loops and will proceed inside magnet (however here and there they are not drawn along these lines). We require an approach to show the bearing of the field.

The field lines of a magnet don't simply end at the magnetic tip. They go directly through it, so that inside the magnet the magnetic field lines indicates from the south to the north pole.

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2 years ago

A) Charge q1 = +5.60 nC is on the x-axis at x = 0 and an unknown charge q2 is on the x-axis at x = -4.00 cm. The total electric

jeka94

Answer:

a) F₃₁ = 63.0 μN

b) F₃₂ = - 14.0 μN

c) q₂ = - 5.0 nC

Explanation:

Assuming that the three charges can be taken as point charges, the forces between them must obey Coulomb's Law, and can be found independent each other, applying the superposition principle.
So, we can find the force that q₁ exerts along the x-axis on q₃, as follows:

$F_{31} =\frac{k*q_{1}*q_{3} }{r_{13}^{2}} = \frac{9e9Nm2/C2*5.6e-9C*2.0e-9C}{(0.04m)^{2}} = 63.0 \mu N (1)$

Since total force exerted by q₁ and q₂ on q₃ is 49.0 μN, we can find the force exerted only by q₂ (which is along the x-axis only too) just by difference, as follows:

$F_{32} = F_{3} - F_{31} = 49.0\mu N - 63.0\mu N = -14.0 \mu N (2)$

Finally, in order to find the value of q₂, as we know the value and sign of F₃₂, we can apply again the Coulomb's Law, solving for q₂, as follows:

$q_{2} = \frac{F_{32} * r_{23}^{2} }{k*q_{3}} = \frac{(-14\mu N)*(0.08m)^{2}}{9e9Nm2/C2* 2 nC} = - 5 nC (3)$

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3 years ago