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Bumek [7]
3 years ago
15

Please help ASAP 50 points

Physics
1 answer:
chubhunter [2.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

A more practical use of constellations was for agriculture. Before calendars were invented farmers relied on the stars to determine when to sow and harvest their crops. Constellations made the patterns of the stars easy to remember. ... Constellations allowed farmers to plan ahead.

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-) Given that 1 inch = 0.0254 m, 1 mile = 1760 yards and 1 yard = 36 inches. Convert 5
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

8.04672 KM

Explanation:

5 miles = 5×1760 yards = 8800 yards

8800 yards = 8800×36 inches = 316800 inches

316800 inches = 316800 x 0.0254 m = 8046.72 m

8046.72 m = 8.04672 kilometers

6 0
3 years ago
An unstable particle is created in the upper atmosphere from a cosmic ray and travels straight down toward the surface of the ea
german

Answer:

Q1)  Time taking by particle to travel the 40 km wrt. earth = 1.34\times10^{-6} sec.

Q2) The distance traveled by particle where the particle created to surface of earth wrt. particle's frame = 3.84 km.

Q3) The time taking by particle to travel from where it is created to the surface of the earth = 1.285\times10^{-5} sec.

Explanation:

Given :

Speed of particle wrt. earth v=0.99537c

Distance between where particle is created and earth surface = 40 km

we know that,

⇒       v = \frac{x}{t}

Where x = 40\times10^{3} m, v = 0.99537c, we know speed of light c = 3 \times10^{8}

∴      t = \frac{x}{v}

         = \frac{40 \times10^{3} }{0.99537\times3\times10^{8} }

      t = 1.34\times10^{-6} sec

∴ Thus, time taking by particle to travel the 40 km wrt. earth t = 1.34\times10^{-6} sec

According to the lorentz transformation,

⇒    l = l_{o} \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} }

Where l = improper length, l_{o} =proper length (distance measured wrt. rest frame) = 40 km

     l = 40 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2 }

     l = 40 \times 0.096

     l = 3.84 km

∴ Thus, the distance traveled by particle where the particle created to surface of earth wrt. particle's frame = 3.84 km.

According to the time dilation,

   \Delta t = \frac{\Delta t_{o} }{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} } }

Where \Delta t = improper time (wrt. earth frame time) =1.34\times10^{-6} sec ,  \Delta t _{o} = proper time (wrt. particle frame).

 1.34\times10^{-6} = \frac{ \Delta t_{o}}{0.096}

 \Delta t_{o} = 1.285 \times10^{-5} sec

Thus, the time taking by particle to travel from where it is created to the surface of the earth = 1.285 \times10^{-5} sec.

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose you are asked to find the amount of time t, in seconds, it takes for the turntable to reach its final rotational speed.
Annette [7]

Answer:

option (D)

Explanation:

Here initial rotation speed is given, final rotation speed is given and asking for time.

If we use

A) θ=θ0+ω0t+(1/2)αt2

For this equation, we don't have any information about the value of angular displacement and angular acceleration, so it is not useful.

B) ω=ω0+αt

For this equation, we don't have any information about angular acceleration, so it is not useful.

C) ω2=ω02+2α(θ−θ0)

In this equation, time is not included, so it is not useful.

D) So, more information is needed.

Thus, option (D) is true.

5 0
3 years ago
If Angle "a" is 25°, Angle "b" is:
Leokris [45]
I would say B but I have no clue
6 0
3 years ago
To understand how to find the velocities of objects after a collision.
trasher [3.6K]

There are some information missing on Part D: Let the mass of object 1 be m and the mass of object 2 be 3m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what are the velocities of the two objects after the collision? Give the velocity v_1 of object one, followed by object v_2 of object two, separated by a comma. Express each velocity in terms of v.

Answer: Part A: v_1 = 0; v_2 = v

Part B: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

Part C: v_1 = \frac{v}{3}; v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

Part D: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

Explanation: In elastic collisions, there no loss of kinetic energy and momentum is conserved. Momentum is determined as p = m.v and kinetic energy as K = \frac{1}{2}m.v^{2}

Conserved means that the amount of initial momentum is equal to the amount of final momentum:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

No loss of energy means that initial kinietc energy is the same as the final kinetic energy:

\frac{1}{2}(m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i}) = \frac{1}{2} (m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}  )

To determine the final velocities of each object, there are 2 variables and two equations, so working those equations, the result is:

v_{2f} = \frac{2.m_{1} } {m_{1} + m_{2} }.v_{1i}  + \frac{(m_{2} - m_{1})}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{2i}

v_{1f} = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i} + \frac{2.m_{2} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } .v_{2i}

For all the collisions, object 2 is static, i.e. v_{2i} = 0

<u>Part A</u>: Both objects have the same mass (m), v_{1i} = v and collision is elastic:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = 0

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.m}{m+m}.v

v_2 = v

When the masses are the same and there is an object at rest, the object in movement stops and the object at rest has the same same velocity as the object who hit it.

<u>Part B</u>: Same mass but collision is inelastic: An inelastic collision means that after it happens, the two objects has the same final velocity, then:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

m_{1}.v_{1i} = (m_{1}+m_{2}).v_{f}

v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m.v}{m+m}

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

<u>Part C:</u> Object 1 is 2m, object 2 is m and elastic collision:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = \frac{2m - m}{2m + m } . v

v_1 = \frac{v}{3}

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.2m}{2m+m}.v

v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

<u>Part D</u>: Object 1 is m, object is 3m and collision is inelastic:

v_1 = v_2 = v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m}{m+3m}.v

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

5 0
3 years ago
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