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Ahat [919]
2 years ago
5

Quiz TIme:

Mathematics
2 answers:
Pie2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

97

Step-by-step explanation:

LUCKY_DIMON [66]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

97

Step-by-step explanation:

not an even number, 96 would be a multiple of 3, not a multiple of 4, and doesnt end with 0 or 5.

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40 miles x 25 min.=?mph
Natalka [10]
\bf \stackrel{miles}{40}~in~\stackrel{minutes}{25}\implies \cfrac{40~miles}{25~\underline{minutes}}\cdot \cfrac{60~\underline{minutes}}{hr}\implies \cfrac{40\cdot 60~miles}{25~hr}
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\cfrac{2400}{25}\cfrac{miles}{hr}\implies 96\frac{miles}{hr}
4 0
3 years ago
Is this factorable please help me.
olga2289 [7]
This can be factored into (2t - 9)(t + 7)
7 0
2 years ago
Backgammon is a board game for two players in which the playing pieces are moved according to the roll of two dice. players win
Ivahew [28]

The rolls of the dice are independent, i.e. the outcome of the second die doesn't depend in any way on the outcome of the first die.

In cases like this, the probability of two events happening one after the other is the multiplication of the probabilities of the two events.

So, the probability of rolling two 6s is the multiplication of the probabilities of rolling a six with the first die, and another six with the second:

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Similarly,

P(\text{rolling two 3s}) = P(\text{rolling a 3}) \cdot P(\text{rolling a 3}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

Actually, you can see that the probability of rolling any ordered couple is always 1/36, since the probability of rolling any number on both dice is 1/6:

P(\text{rolling any ordered couple}) = P(\text{rolling the first number}) \cdot P(\text{rolling the second number}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

7 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7Bp%7D%7B%20-%208%7D%20%20%2B%209%20%3E%2013" id="TexFormula1" title=" \frac{p}{ -
Gnom [1K]

is the answer open circle?

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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ohaa [14]
Necesitamos las figuras... ;)
6 0
2 years ago
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