Answer:
B) is narrow and outdated.
Explanation:
The article's name is "Rethinking the 4 P’s" and it summarizes a 5 year study that involved more than 500 top level managers across the world. That study doesn't say that the 4 Ps are useless, it states that they are outdated. The study focused on the B2B market and it argues that the 4 Ps must be restated:
- S ⇒ products to solutions
- A ⇒ place to access
- V ⇒ price to value
- E ⇒ promotion to education
Answer:
$1,188 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total direct labor variance is shown below:
Total Labor Variance is
= Total standard cost - total actual cost
= (Standard hours × Standard rate) - (Actual hours × Actual rate)
= (980 units × 4.5 × $14) - ($62,928)
= 61,740 - $62,928
= $1,188 unfavorable
Since the actual cost is more than the standard cost which results into unfavorable variance
The Federal reserve is acting as a lender of last resort when its lends money to banks and other financial institutions because no one else will/
<h3>What is the Federal Reserve?</h3>
It is the United states central banking system that is responsible for the nation's monetary policy and regulation of the supply of money and interest rates.
One of the role of Federal reserve is to act as a lender of last resort when its lends money to banks and other financial institutions because no one else will.
Therefore, the Option A is correct.
Read more about Federal Reserve
<em>brainly.com/question/25843620</em>
#SPJ12
Right handed people make more money. Because most working instrument are only made for right handed hence why they make more money than left-handed people.
Answer:
-5.14 for sam
-18.01% for dave
Explanation:
We first calculate for Sam
R = 7.3%
We have 2% increase
= 9.3%
We calculate for present value of coupon and present value at maturity using the formula for present value in the attachment
To get C
1000 x 0.073/2
= 36.5
time= 3 years x 2 times payment = 6
Ytm = rate = 9.3%/2 = 0.0465
Putting values into the formula
36.5[1-(1+0.0465)^-6/0.0465]
= 36.5(1-0.7613/0.0465)
36.5(0.2385/0.0465)
= 36.5 x 5.129
Present value of coupon = 187.20
We solve for maturity
M = 1000
T = 6 months
R = 0.0465
1000/(1+0.0465)⁶
= 1000/1.3135
Present value = 761.32
We add up the value of present value at maturity and that at coupon
761.32 + 187.20
= $948.52
Change in % = 948.52/1000 - 1
= -0.05148
= -5.14 for sam
We calculate for Dave
He has 20 years and payment is two times yearly
= 20x2 = 40
36.5 [1-(1+0.0465)^-40/0.0465]
Present value = 36.5 x 18.014
= 657.511
At maturity,
Present value = 1000/(1+0.0465)⁴⁰
= 1000/6.1598
= 162.34
We add up these present values
= 657.511+162.34 = $819.851
Change = 819.851/1000 -1
= -0.1801
= -18.01%
