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Fudgin [204]
2 years ago
14

Please hurry I will brainliest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kruka [31]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

the inequaltiy is 16.5x\leq363

X \leq22

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay so we can’t go over 363 miles since thats the maximum amount of miles for a full tank

1 gallon can travel 16.5 miles

So we can make x stand for amount of gallons

16.5x\leq363

Now that makes sense becuase 16.5 miles for every gallon and we don’t know how much gallons since its not stated, now the amount can’t pass 363 but it could be equal so we make an less than or equal to sign

For X we solve it and get x\leq22.

So a full tank can have 22 or less gallons of gas.

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1. Libby is calculating her net worth. Her
natulia [17]

Answer:

$119,703

Step-by-step explanation:

This question is easy, it is just $87,545 plus $32,158

5 0
3 years ago
If f(x) =5x-25 and g(x) = (1/5)X+5, which expression could be used to verify g(x) is the inverse of f(x)
mina [271]
Answer:
f(g(x)) = x

Explanation:
In order to prove that one function is the inverse of the other, all you have to do is substitute in the main function with the inverse one and solve. If the result is x, then it is verified that one function is the inverse of the other. 
Now for the given functions we have:
<span>f(x) =5x-25
</span><span>g(x) = (1/5)x+5
We want to prove that g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
Substitute in the above formula and compute the result as follows:
f(g(x)) = 5(</span>(1/5)x+5) - 25
          = x + 25 - 25
          = x
The final result is "x", therefore, it is verified that g(x) is the inverse of f(x)

Hope this helps :)
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the experimental probability Roll dice 1,3,3,4,4 P(1)= I’ll give brainleist
-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

\mathrm{P(1)\:}=\frac{1}{5}

Step-by-step explanation:

There are simply 5 possible values in the given set. Out of these, only one of these is the number 1. Therefore, the probability a 1 is drawn (P(1)) is \fbox{$\frac{1}{5}$}.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Add and Subtract Decimals to
Bogdan [553]
It should be 0.4 cause 0.4 is the same as 0.40
4 0
3 years ago
A sample of 1500 computer chips revealed that 32% of the chips do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use. The company's p
Grace [21]

Answer:

Yes, we have sufficient evidence at the 0.02 level to support the company's claim.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a sample of 1500 computer chips revealed that 32% of the chips do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use. The company's promotional literature claimed that above 29% do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use.

Let Null Hypothesis, H_0 : p \leq 0.29  {means that less than or equal to 29% do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use}

Alternate Hypothesis, H_1 : p > 0.29  {means that more than 29% do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use}

The test statics that will be used here is One-sample proportions test;

          T.S. = \frac{\hat p -p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \hat p = proportion of chips that do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use = 32%

            n = sample of chips = 1500

So, <u>test statistics</u> = \frac{0.32-0.29}{\sqrt{\frac{0.32(1-0.32)}{1500} } }

                              = 2.491

<em>Now, at 0.02 level of significance the z table gives critical value of 2.054. Since our test statistics is more than the critical value of z so we have sufficient evidence to reject null hypothesis as it fall in the rejection region.</em>

Therefore, we conclude that more than 29% do not fail in the first 1000 hours of their use which means we have sufficient evidence at the 0.02 level to support the company's claim.

7 0
3 years ago
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