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2 years ago

GIVEAWAY IMAKE SURE YOU SAY TY! ILL GIVE MORE IF DO

Physics

2 answers:

Gwar [14]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

iragen [17]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

TY!!

Explanation:

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Hello people ~

Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Potential

Explanation:

The most accurate term is Electrostatic potential energy

It is denoted as UC

It's named like this because the force between charges or electrons is called electrostatic force .

5 0

2 years ago

Two people, Micah and Lyra, with different near points are equally close to an object. Both inspect the object through the same

Gekata [30.6K]

Meh kock is really really hard

4 0

3 years ago

"the velocity of the block is constant, so the net force acting on the block must be zero. Thus the normal force equals the weig

RSB [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

"the velocity of the block is constant, so the net force acting on the block must be zero. Thus the normal force equals the weight and the force of friction equals the applied force" The only thing which is wrongly stated here is that the normal force equals the weight. Normal force is not always equal to weight. If external force is applied at some angle with the horizon , normal force may be more or less than weight. Even in case of an object placed on an inclined plane , weight is not equal to normal force .

All other parts of the statement are correct.

6 0

2 years ago

malcom is doing a wheely on his motorcycle and moving at 20 m/s with a momentum of 6000 kg m/s when he lays her down. The mass o

rodikova [14]

Answer:

110 kg

Explanation:

The momentum of the Malcom+motorcycle system is given by:

$p=(m+M)v$

where

(m+M) is the total mass of the system, with

m = mass of Malcom

M = 190 kg (mass of the motorcycle)

v = 20 m/s velocity

Since we know the momentum:

p = 6000 kg m/s

We can re-arrange the equation to find the mass of Malcom:

$m=\frac{p}{v}-M=\frac{6000 kg m/s}{20 m/s}-190 kg=110 kg$

3 0

3 years ago

A 2 kg marble moving at 4 mi./s collides into a 1 kg marble at rest. After collision, the 2 kg marble speed decreased to 2 mi./s

Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

$2\sqrt{6}$ $\frac{mi}{s}$

Explanation:

Assuming there is no waste of energy:

$K_{1} = K_{2}\\\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1_{1}}^{2} + \frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2_{1}}^2 = \frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1_{2}}^{2} + \frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2_{2}}^2\\\\=> m_{1}v_{1_{1}}^{2} + m_{2}v_{2_{1}}^2 = m_{1}v_{1_{2}}^{2} + m_{2}v_{2_{2}}^2\\\\m_{1} = 2 kg, m_{2} = 1 kg, v_{1_{1}} = 4 \frac{mi}{s} , v_{2_{1}} = 0\\=> 32 = 8 + v_{2_{2}}^{2} => v_{2_{2}} = 2\sqrt{6} \frac{mi}{s}$

6 0

3 years ago