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irina1246 [14]
3 years ago
11

The quality-control manager of a large factory is concerned about the number of defective items produced by workers. Thirty work

ers at the factory agree to participate in a study of three different incentive plans to help reduce the number of defective items produced. The plans will be randomly assigned to the workers so that 10 workers received each plan. The reduction in the number of defective items produced by each worker will be recorded two weeks after the plans are implemented. Which of the following best describes why a completely random?
a. There is no blocking variable, and incentive plans will be randomly assigned to the workers.
b. There is no blocking variable, and the workers were selected at random.
c. Each incentive plan is a block and a completely randomized design is not blocked
d. Each plan will be randomly assigned to 10 pairs of workers who share a similar characteristic.
e. The number of workers participating in the study was greater than or equal to 30
Mathematics
1 answer:
kotegsom [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. There is no blocking variable, and incentive plans will be randomly assigned to the workers.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Randomized Complete Block Design (RCBD) is a standard experimental design where experimental units or subjects are grouped as blocks (also known as replicates). In RCBD, subjects within each block are randomly assigned to the experimental units within a block. RCBD is a type of design that reduces variability by controlling variation within each treatment, thereby enhancing the estimation of the treatment effects (combinations of the factor levels of the different factors).

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A sample of blood pressure measurements is taken for a group of​ adults, and those values​ (mm Hg) are listed below. The values
Slav-nsk [51]

Answer:

Systolic on right

\hat{CV} =\frac{18.68}{127.5}=0.147

Systolic on left

\hat{CV} =\frac{12.65}{74.2}=0.170

So for this case we have more variation for the data of systolic on left compared to the data systolic on right but the difference is not big since 0.170-0.147 = 0.023.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following data:

Systolic (#'s on right) Diastolic (#'s on left)

117; 80

126; 77

158; 76

96; 51

157; 90

122; 89

116; 60

134; 64

127; 72

122; 83

The coefficient of variation is defined as " a statistical measure of the dispersion of data points in a data series around the mean" and is defined as:

CV= \frac{\sigma}{\mu}

And the best estimator is \hat {CV} =\frac{s}{\bar x}

Systolic on right

We can calculate the mean and deviation with the following formulas:

[te]\bar x = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n X_i}{n}[/tex]

s= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i -\bar X)^2}{n-1}

For this case we have the following values:

\bar x = 127.5, s= 18.68

So then the coeffcient of variation is given by:

\hat{CV} =\frac{18.68}{127.5}=0.147

Systolic on left

For this case we have the following values:

\bar x = 74.2 s= 12.65

So then the coeffcient of variation is given by:

\hat{CV} =\frac{12.65}{74.2}=0.170

So for this case we have more variation for the data of systolic on left compared to the data systolic on right but the difference is not big since 0.170-0.147 = 0.023.

4 0
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Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

I think A is the answer

but D is the correct answer "kunno"

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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