The break even point is when profit is equal to zero, or in this case when p(x)=0
4x^2-28x+40=0
4(x^2-7x+10)=0
4(x^2-2x-5x+10)=0
4(x(x-2)-5(x-2))=0
4(x-5)(x-2)=0
So the break even points are when x=2 and 5, which is when 2000 and 5000 units are sold.
2L+2W=157.5
L=W-30
2(W-30)+2W=157.5
2W-60+2W=157.5
+60 +60
4w=217.5
W=54.4(.37 rounded to nearest tenth)
L=24.4
Here is the compound interest formula solved for years:
<span>Years = {log(total) -log(Principal)} ÷ log(1 + rate)
</span>Years = {log(800) - log(600)} <span>÷ log(1.025)
</span><span>Years = {2.903089987 -2.7781512504} / 0.010723865392
</span>Years = {
<span>
<span>
<span>
0.1249387366
} / </span></span></span><span><span><span>0.010723865392
</span>
</span>
</span>
Years =
<span>
<span>
<span>
11.6505319708
</span>
</span>
</span>
That's how many years it takes for the $600 to become exactly $800.00
The question specifically asks how long for the money to be MORE than $800.00?
So, if we enter 800.01 into the equation, then the answer is
Years = {log(800.01) - log(600)} <span>÷ log(1.025)
</span><span>Years = {2.9030954156 -2.7781512504} / 0.010723865392
</span>Years =
<span>
<span>
<span>
0.1249441652
</span>
</span>
</span>
/ 0.010723865392
<span>
<span>
<span>
Years = 11.6510381875
</span>
</span>
</span>
<span><span> </span></span>
Answer:
Has exactly one pair of parallel sides.
Step-by-step explanation:
Has exactly one pair of parallel sides.
Answer:
x=16°
Step-by-step explanation:
5*x-30=2*(x+18)
For the second, I'd say it is:
5*x-30=2*x+18
Let's solve both.
5*x-30=2*(x+18)
5x-30=2x+36
3x=66
x=22
5*x-30=2*x+18
3x+48
x=16°
