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chubhunter [2.5K]
3 years ago
11

If a 400-mm diameter pipe with a pipe roughness coefficient of 100 flows full of pressurized water with a head loss of 0.4 ft pe

r 1,000 ft of pipeline, what is the flow rate? Use the Hazen-Williams method
Physics
1 answer:
RoseWind [281]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Q = 913.9 gpm

Explanation:

The Hazen Williams equation can be written as follows:

P = \frac{4.52\ Q^{1.85}}{C^{1.85}d^{4.87}}

where,

P = Friction Loss per foot of pipe = \frac{0.4}{1000\ ft} = 4 x 10⁻⁴

Q = Flow Rate in gallon/min (gpm) = ?

d = pipe diameter in inches = (400 mm)(0.0393701 in/1 mm) = 15.75 in

C = roughness coefficient = 100

Therefore,

4\ x \ 10^{-4} = \frac{4.52\ Q^{1.85}}{(100)^{1.85}(15.75)^{4.87}}\\\\Q^{1.85} = \frac{4\ x \ 10^{-4}}{1.33\ x\ 10^{-9}} \\\\Q = (300384.75)^\frac{1}{1.85}

<u>Q = 913.9 gpm</u>

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Arm ab has a constant angular velocity of 16 rad/s counterclockwise. At the instant when theta = 60
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The <em>linear</em> acceleration of collar D when <em>θ = 60°</em> is - 693.867 inches per square second.

<h3>How to determine the angular velocity of a collar</h3>

In this question we have a system formed by three elements, the element AB experiments a <em>pure</em> rotation at <em>constant</em> velocity, the element BD has a <em>general plane</em> motion, which is a combination of rotation and traslation, and the ruff experiments a <em>pure</em> translation.

To determine the <em>linear</em> acceleration of the collar (a_{D}), in inches per square second, we need to determine first all <em>linear</em> and <em>angular</em> velocities (v_{D}, \omega_{BD}), in inches per second and radians per second, respectively, and later all <em>linear</em> and <em>angular</em> accelerations (a_{D}, \alpha_{BD}), the latter in radians per square second.

By definitions of <em>relative</em> velocity and <em>relative</em> acceleration we build the following two systems of <em>linear</em> equations:

<h3>Velocities</h3>

v_{D} + \omega_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma = -\omega_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta   (1)

\omega_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma = -\omega_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta   (2)

<h3>Accelerations</h3>

a_{D}+\alpha_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma = -\omega_{AB}^{2}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta -\alpha_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta - \omega_{BD}^{2}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma   (3)

-\alpha_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma = - \omega_{AB}^{2}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta + \alpha_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta - \omega_{BD}^{2}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma   (4)

If we know that \theta = 60^{\circ}, \gamma = 19.889^{\circ}, r_{BD} = 10\,in, \omega_{AB} = 16\,\frac{rad}{s}, r_{AB} = 3\,in and \alpha_{AB} = 0\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}}, then the solution of the systems of linear equations are, respectively:

<h3>Velocities</h3>

v_{D}+3.402\cdot \omega_{BD} = -41.569   (1)

9.404\cdot \omega_{BD} = -24   (2)

v_{D} = -32.887\,\frac{in}{s}, \omega_{BD} = -2.552\,\frac{rad}{s}

<h3>Accelerations</h3>

a_{D}+3.402\cdot \alpha_{BD} = -445.242   (3)

-9.404\cdot \alpha_{BD} = -687.264   (4)

a_{D} = -693.867\,\frac{in}{s^{2}}, \alpha_{BD} = 73.082\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}}

The <em>linear</em> acceleration of collar D when <em>θ = 60°</em> is - 693.867 inches per square second. \blacksquare

<h3>Remark</h3>

The statement is incomplete and figure is missing, complete form is introduced below:

<em>Arm AB has a constant angular velocity of 16 radians per second counterclockwise. At the instant when θ = 60°, determine the acceleration of collar D.</em>

To learn more on kinematics, we kindly invite to check this verified question: brainly.com/question/27126557

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