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wariber [46]
2 years ago
7

If you are going 60 mph what is your speed in m per second

Physics
1 answer:
LenKa [72]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1/60 mps

Explanation:

We would first have to divide 60 by 60 because there is 60mins per hour to get 1mpm. After that we would have to divide 1 by 60 because there are 60 secs in a min. So our final answer after doing 1/60 would be a fraction.

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The mass number of a nucleus (except Hydrogen) is:
netineya [11]
The mass number of a nucleus (except Hydrogen) is: number of protons + number of neutrons.

A=Z+N

A=mass number=protons + neutrons.
Z=atomic number=number of protons.
N=number of neutrons. 

In the case of Hydrogen it depends of isotope of Hydrogen . 
the hydrogen has three isotopes, 
protium : A=Z, because N=0
deuterium:  A=Z+N;   N=1
 tritium: A=Z+N;    N=2 
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An electron in a television tube is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of 8.4\times 10^7~\text{m/s}8.4×10 ​7 ​​ m/s over
stich3 [128]

Answer:

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

Explanation:

From the kinematics of motion with constant acceleration we know that :  

vf^2=vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

Where :

• vf , vi, are the the final and the initial velocity of the electron  

• a is the acceleration of the electron  

• xf , xi are the final and the initial position of the electron .

Strategy for solving the problem : at first from the given information we calculate the acceleration of the electron.  

Givens: vf = 8.4 x 10^7 m/s , vi, = 0 m/s , xf = 0.025 m and xi = 0 m  

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2-vi^2=2*a(xf-xi)

2*a(xf-xi)= vf^2-vi^2

          a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

Pluging known information to get :

a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

  = 1.411 × 10^17

From the acceleration and the previous Eq. we can calculate the final velocity of the electron but a new position xf = 0.01 m  

so,

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2 =5.312× 10^7

From the following Eq. we can calculate the time elapsed in this motion .  

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

  t=√2(xf-xi)/a

 t=3.765×10^-10 s

now we can use the power P Eq.  

 P=W/Δt => ΔK/Δt  

Where: the work done W change the kinetic energy K of the electron ,

ΔK=Kf-Ki=>1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2

P=1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2/Δt

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

6 0
3 years ago
What is a limited resource?
Artemon [7]
Something that there is only so many of or not enough of
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
6. Show that the weight of an object on the moon is 1/6 its weight on earth.​
mojhsa [17]

Taking ratio of W & w. ≈ 6 . w = 1/6 W. Therefore , Weight of an object on the moon is 1/6 of its weight on the earth.

5 0
3 years ago
A disk of mass M and radius R rotates at angular velocity ω0. Another disk of mass M and radius r is dropped on top of the rotat
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

\omega = \frac{(R^2\omega_o}{(R^2 + r^2)}

Explanation:

As we know that there is no external torque on the system of two disc

then the angular momentum of the system will remains conserved

So we will have

L_i = L_f

now we have

L_i = (\frac{1}{2}MR^2)\omega_o

also we have

L_f = (\frac{1}{2}MR^2 + \frac{1}{2}Mr^2)\omega

now from above equation we have

(\frac{1}{2}MR^2)\omega_o  = (\frac{1}{2}MR^2 + \frac{1}{2}Mr^2)\omega

now we have

\omega = \frac{MR^2\omega_o}{(MR^2 + Mr^2)}

\omega = \frac{(R^2\omega_o}{(R^2 + r^2)}

6 0
3 years ago
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