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bixtya [17]
3 years ago
11

A car travelling at 40 m/s comes to a halt in 8 seconds. What is the car’s acceleration and how far does it travel while it is s

topping?
Physics
1 answer:
IrinaVladis [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Acceleration = 5m/s^2; Distance traveled = 320 m

Explanation:

Velocity of car = 40m/s

Time taken = 8 seconds

Acceleration = ?

Distance traveled = ?

A) Since acceleration is the rate of change of velocity per unit time

i.e acceleration = velocity / time

acceleration = 40m/s / 8 seconds

Acceleration = 5m/s^2

B) To get how far the car traveled before stopping, obtain the distance from the formula:

velocity = distance traveled / time

40m/s = distance / 8 seconds

Distance = 40m/s x 8 seconds

Distance = 320 m

Thus, the car’s acceleration is 5m/s^2 while it traveled 320 metres before stopping.

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A physics student swings a pail of water in a vertical circle 1.0 m in radius at a constant speed. If the water is NOT to spill
love history [14]

Answer:

(A) 3.1 m/s

(B) 2.0 s

Explanation:

At the minimum speed, the force of gravity equals the centripetal force.

mg = m v² / r

v = √(gr)

v = √(9.8 m/s² × 1.0 m)

v = 3.1 m/s

The time is the circumference divided by the speed.

t = (2π × 1.0 m) / (3.1 m/s)

t = 2.0 s

7 0
3 years ago
PLS ANSWER FAST WILL GIVE BRAINLY TIMED TEST
solong [7]
A=F/m
a=(3000000)/(20000)
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4 0
2 years ago
If a stone is dropped from a height of 400 feet, its height after t seconds is given by s = 400 − 16t2. Find its instantaneous v
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

v = -32 t

Explanation:

given,

s = 400- 16 t²

we know,

Velocity of an object is defined as the change in displacement per unit change in time.

velocity an also be return as

v = \dfrac{ds}{dt}

v = \dfrac{d}{dt}(400-16t^2)

v= 0 -2\times 16 t

v = -32 t

Hence, instantaneous velocity function given by v = -32 t

To calculate instantaneous velocity, you need to insert value of time.

ex, instantaneous velocity at t = 4 s

       v = -32 x 4 = -128 m/s.

5 0
3 years ago
In any energy transformation, there is always some energy that gets wasted as non-useful heat.
Nady [450]
It is a completely false statement that in <span>any energy transformation, there is always some energy that gets wasted as non-useful heat. The correct option among the two options that are given in the question is the second option. I hope that this is the answer that has actually come to your desired help.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a television set, electrons are accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 20 kV. The electrons then pass throug
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer: Fmax = 5.54*10^-12 N

Explanation: From the question, we have the potential difference (V) =20kv = 20,000v and strength of magnetic field (B) =0.41 T.

The maximum force experienced by a charge of magnitude (q) is given as

Fmax = qvB

Where v = velocity of electron.

The velocity of the electron can be gotten by using the work energy theorem.

The kinetic energy of the electron (mv²/2) equals the work done needed to accelerate it.

mv²/2 = qV.

Where m = mass of an electronic charge = 9.11×10^-31 kg, q = magnitude of an electronic charge = 1.609×10^-19 c, v = velocity of electron, V = potential difference = 20,000v.

By substituting the parameters, we have that

(9.11×10^-31 × v²)/2 = 1.609×10^-19 × 20000

(9.11×10^-31 × v²) = 1.609×10^-19 × 20000 ×2

v² = (1.609×10^-19 × 20000 ×2)/9.11×10^-31

v² = 64.36*10^(-16)/9.11×10^-31

v² = 7.0647×10^15

v = √7.0647×10^15

v = 8.40×10^7 m/s

Fmax = 1.609×10^-19 × 8.40×10^7 × 0.41

Fmax = 5.54*10^-12 N

7 0
3 years ago
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