Answer:
7200
Step-by-step explanation:
1,200 x 6 = 7200
Answer:
I think C is the current answer
Step-by-step explanation:
it makes sense to me because the $0.5 is depending on the $250
Answer:
0.0782 (7.82%)
Step-by-step explanation:
The required probability will be found by using the Binomial Distribution which fits the case of n independent events each with a probability of success equal to p with k successes.
The PMF (Probability Mass Function) is

Where 
LabTech states that the probability that a microscope is defective is 0.17%, p=0.0017, q=0.9983. We need to know the probability that k=1 microscope is defective out of a set of n=50 of them. We now apply the formula

Which means that there is a 7.82% of probability to get 1 defective microscope out of the first 50
Plan 1 because she spends 435.88 more if she goes with plan 2