Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
the answer is B
Step-by-step explanation:
Just estimate ex: 5 x 5 would be 25, so sqrt 22 would be just before the 5.
The probability that a biscuit picked at random contains chocolate
chips. = 1/5 , The Venn Diagram is attached with the answer.
<h3>What is Probability ?</h3>
Probability is defined as the study of likeliness of an event to happen.
It is given that
There are 30 biscuits in a tin
8 of the biscuits are iced, of which 6 contain chocolate chips
4 biscuits are neither iced nor contain chocolate chips.
the probability that a biscuit picked at random contains chocolate
chips.
There are total 6 biscuits which have chocolate chips
The probability that a biscuit picked at random contains chocolate
chips. = 6/8 *8/30 = 6/30 = 1/5
The probability that a biscuit picked at random contains chocolate
chips. = 1/5
The Venn Diagram is attached with the answer.
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It would be $45. The equation is 500×0. 06×1.5
