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nydimaria [60]
2 years ago
13

The straight line in the experiment of hooks law does not pass through the origin beacause?

Physics
1 answer:
pshichka [43]2 years ago
7 0
Okay, let’s look at it this way: when does a line pass through the origin? The line represents possible values of x and y that satisfy the equation.

So, when a line passes through the origin, it passes through the coordinates (0,0). x = 0, y = 0. So, let’s model this with the equation ax + by + c = 0. Sub in x = 0 and y = 0 to the equation and we find that 0 + 0 + c = 0. Clearly, c = 0.

So, with this simple explanation, I hope you understand when a line does pass through the origin.

Now, let’s look at when a line doesn’t pass through the origin. This is when c is not equal to 0. Hence, when x = 0, y cannot equal 0; c + by = 0, and we know that c is not 0. If y is 0, then we get c = 0… where c is not 0. Ehh. Thus, you can see that a line does not pass through the origin when c is not equal to 0 by ehat is hope is a simple explanation. You don’t need to know how to prove it, I presume, but that’s not too hard either.

Oops, I realised that I just assumed you were talking about linear graphs. For quadratic graphs, the reasoning is similar. For graphs of the form y = ax^2, the minimum/maximum point of the graph will be the origin. For graphs of the form y = ax^2 + bx, it will pass through the origin but the line of symmetry will be different. For graphs of the form y = ax^2 + bx + c (you know, where c is not zero) , the graph will not pass through the origin because the maximum/ minimum point is actually raised or lowered by c units
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A flat surface is in a uniform magnetic field. Given only the area of the surface and the magnetic flux through the surface, it
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Answer:

Given the area A of a flat surface and the magnetic flux through the surface \Phi it is possible to calculate the magnitude \frac{\Phi}{A}=B\ cos \theta.

Explanation:

The magnetic flux gives an idea of how many magnetic field lines are passing through a surface. The SI unit of the magnetic flux \Phi is the weber (Wb), of the magnetic field B is the tesla (T) and of the area A is (m^{2}). So 1 Wb=1 T.m².

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The free-fall acceleration on Mars is 3.7 m/s^2. What length of pendulum has a period of 1.0 s on Earth? What length of pendulum
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Explanation:

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