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Ksju [112]
3 years ago
12

What's the probability a 4 sided dice lands on the same side 10 times?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
5 0
I think so the answer is 1/4
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Help Please & Thanks
Vanyuwa [196]
I am not sure but I think it’s c
7 0
2 years ago
PLSSSS HELLPPPP MEEEEE I WILLL GIVEEE BRAINLIESSSTTT!!!!
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

\displaystyle m=3

General Formulas and Concepts:

<u>Pre-Algebra</u>

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

  1. Brackets
  2. Parenthesis
  3. Exponents
  4. Multiplication
  5. Division
  6. Addition
  7. Subtraction
  • Left to Right

<u>Algebra I</u>

  • Slope Formula: \displaystyle m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Step 1: Define</u>

Point (6, 8)

Point (5, 5)

<u>Step 2: Find slope </u><em><u>m</u></em>

Simply plug in the 2 coordinates into the slope formula to find slope<em> m</em>

  1. Substitute in points [SF]:                     \displaystyle m=\frac{5-8}{5-6}
  2. [Fraction] Subtract:                              \displaystyle m=\frac{-3}{-1}
  3. [Fraction] Divide:                                 \displaystyle m=3
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If two-thirds of Sam's weekly income is $480, what is one-fourth of his weekly income?
telo118 [61]

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

If two-thirds of Sam's weekly income is $480

so total is $720

720$/4= 180$

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The solution to an absolute value inequality is shown on the graph below.
Allushta [10]

The solution to show the absolute value inequality is (-3,-2)

<h3>What is absolute inequality?</h3>

An absolute value inequality is an expression with absolute functions as well as inequality signs

Interval = -3 to 2

The intervals are represented with open parenthesis, which shows that -3 and 2 are excluded values of the inequality.

So, we have:

-3 < x < 2

As an interval notation,

(-3,-2)

Hence, the solution to the absolute value inequality is (-3,-2)

Learn more about absolute value inequality here:

brainly.com/question/13282457

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
What is the probability of having 53 Mondays in a leap year?
Ronch [10]

Answer:

1/7

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 52 weeks in a year. Each have one Monday. Leap years have a total of 366 days. There are  7 days of the week. Monday is one of them, so it'll be a 1/7 chance.

5 0
3 years ago
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