Answer:
1. Depreciation expense for 2019(Straight-line)= (Cost of the assets - Salvage value) / life of the assets
= ($330000 - $33000)/8
= $37,125
2. Sum-of-the-years'-digits = 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8 = 36
Depreciation Expense for 2019(Sum-of-the-years'-digits method)
= ($330000 - $33000)*8/36
= $66,000
3. Double-declining-balance depreciation rate = (100/8 years)*2 = 25%
Depreciation Expense for 2019 = 330000*25% = $82,500
Answer:
Integrated marketing communications.
Explanation:
Integrated marketing communications involved passing clear messages about a particular product to potential customers through different communication channels. It is used to create an awareness of the product to the customers.
Intergrated marketing communication involves delivering a consistent message about a product to potential customers through multiple platforms.
Integrated marketing communications helps a business to increase sales at a reduced cost.
Answer:
The firm's optimal capital structure is 80% Debt and 20% Equity.
The WACC at this optimal capital structure is 10.28%.
Explanation:
Note: See the attached excel file the computation of the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) at the optimal capital structure. Also note that the data in the question are merged together but they are sorted in the attached excel file before answering the question.
The optimal capital structure of a firm can be described as a combination of debt and equity financing that is the beat in which market value of the firm is maximized while its cost of capital is minimized.
Using the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), the optimal capital cost capital structure occurs at a point where the WACC is the lowest.
From the attached excel file, the lowest WACC is 0.1028, or 10.28%. At this firm Market Debt- to-Value Ratio (wd) which is debt is 0.80 (i.e. 80%), and Market Equity-to-Value Ratio (ws) which is equity is 0.20 (i.e. 20%).
Therefore, the firm's optimal capital structure is 80% Debt and 20% Equity.
The WACC at this optimal capital structure is 10.28%.
Answer:
3.44%
Explanation:
The computation of the return if sold the fund at the year end is shown below:
= {[Price × (1 - Front End Load) × ((1 + fund increase percentage) -expense ratio)] - price} ÷ price
={[$20 per share × (1 - 5.75%) × ((1 + 11%) - 1.25%)] - 20} ÷ 20
= 3.44%
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct return could come
Answer:
The correct answer is Generalizability.
Explanation:
The generalizability theory (theory G) allows to measure the reliability of a test by quantifying the importance of each of its sources of variability. The error is redefined, as a condition or facet of measurement, using the generalizability coefficient as a measure to estimate reliability. This approach does not contradict the fundamental approaches of the classical theory of tests, but can be seen as an extension of it.
