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notka56 [123]
3 years ago
10

A metal can become magnetic if the outermost electrons

Physics
1 answer:
Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The magnetic moment of a system measures the strength and the direction of its magnetism. The term itself usually refers to the magnetic dipole moment. Anything that is magnetic, like a bar magnet or a loop of electric current, has a magnetic moment. A magnetic moment is a vector quantity, with a magnitude and a direction. An electron has an electron magnetic dipole moment, generated by the electron's intrinsic spin property, making it an electric charge in motion. There are many different magnetic behavior including paramagnetism, diamagnetism, and ferromagnetism.

An interesting characteristic of transition metals is their ability to form magnets. Metal complexes that have unpaired electrons are magnetic. Since the last electrons reside in the d orbitals, this magnetism must be due to having unpaired d electrons. The spin of a single electron is denoted by the quantum number \(m_s\) as +(1/2) or –(1/2). This spin is negated when the electron is paired with another, but creates a weak magnetic field when the electron is unpaired. More unpaired electrons increase the paramagnetic effects. The electron configuration of a transition metal (d-block) changes in a coordination compound; this is due to the repulsive forces between electrons in the ligands and electrons in the compound. Depending on the strength of the ligand, the compound may be paramagnetic or diamagnetic.Explanation:

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Answer:

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Changes of state
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

At segment T-U, the substance changes from a liquid to a gas and does not change temperature.

The reason is because latent heat of vaporisation allows for the absorption of heat in the change of state and temperature remains constant until it has fully changed state.

4 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Light of wavelength 436.1 nm falls on two slits spaced 0.31 mm apart. What is the required distance from the slits to the screen
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

The correct answer is "4.26 m".

Explanation:

Given:

Wavelength,

\lambda = 436.1 \ nm

or,

  =436.1\times 10^{-9} \ m

Distance,

d = 0.31 \ mm

or,

  =0.31\times 10^{-3} \ m

Distance between the 1st and 2nd dark fringes,

(y_2-y_1) = 6\times 10^{-3} \ m

As we know,

⇒ \frac{d}{L} (y_2-y_1) = \lambda

or,

⇒ L=\frac{d(y_2-y_1)}{\lambda}

By substituting the values, we get

       =\frac{0.31\times 6\times 10^{-6}}{436.1\times 10^{-9}}

       =\frac{0.31\times 6\times 10^3}{436.1}

       =\frac{1860}{436.1}

       =4.26 \ m

3 0
3 years ago
an object is acted on by a drag force with a magnitude that is proportional to the speed. the object accelerates downward at 3.0
Nutka1998 [239]

The terminal speed of the object falling down is 66.67 m/s.

The terminal speed acquired by the body when,

Weight of the body = Drag force of the body

It is given,

Drag force is directly proportional to the speed,

So,

F = CV

Where F is drag force,

V is the speed,

C is the constant,

So, it can be written as C = F/V.

The weight of the body = mg

The weight of the body = 10m

M is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity,

The drag force when the speed is 20m/s.

Drag force = ma

a is the acceleration during the drag force which is given to be 3m/s²,

Drag force = 3m

Now we can write,

F₁/V₁ = F₂/V₂

F₁ is the drag force at 20m/s speed.

F₂ is the weight of the body and V₂ is the terminal speed,

Now, it can be written,

3m/20 = 10m/V₂

V₂ = 66.67 m/s.

So, the terminal speed is 66.67m/s.

To know more about terminal speed, visit,

brainly.com/question/14605362

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
Why is the scientific method described as cyclic?
Troyanec [42]
Because the scientific method can go around in a circle as many times as neccisary to get the results you need
8 0
3 years ago
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