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3 years ago

A bus starts to move from rest. If it is accelerated by 0.8m/s2, calculate the velocity and distance traveled after 8 s.

Physics

1 answer:

Colt1911 [192]3 years ago

6 0

We are given:_______________________________________________

Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s

acceleration (a) = 0.8 m/s²

time interval (t) = 8 seconds

final velocity (v) = v m/s

distance travelled (s) = s m

Solving for the final velocity:___________________________________

We know that:

v = u + at [first equation of motion]

v = 0 + (0.8)(8) [replacing the variables]

v = 6.4 m/s

Hence, the final velocity is 6.4 m/s

Solving for the distance travelled:_______________________________

We know that:

s = ut + 1/2(at²) [second equation of motion]

s = (0)(8) + 1/2(0.8)(8)(8) [replacing the variables]

s = 1/2(6.4*8)

s = 25.6 m

Hence, the distance travelled is 25.6 m

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A glass bottle of soda is sealed with a screw cap. The absolute pressure of the carbon dioxide inside the bottle is 1.50 x 105 P

MArishka [77]

Answer:

$F \approx 19.5 N$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Pressure of $P_{CO_2}=1.50 * 105 Pa.$

Bottle cap area $A_b= 4.40 * 10-4 m^2$

Generally the equation for Resultant pressure $P_r$ is give as is mathematically given by

$P_r=P_{CO_2}-P_a$

Where

$P_a=atmospheric\ pressure = 1.013*10^5 pa$

$P_r=1.50 * 105 Pa-1.013*10^5 pa$

$P_r=0.487*10^5 pa$

Generally the equation for Force exerted by screw F is give as is mathematically given by

$F = P*A\\F = 0.487*10^5*4.00*10^-4\\ F = 19.48 N$

$F \approx 19.5 N$

4 0

3 years ago

An attractive force of |1N| exists between two charged particles. The magnitude of both charges is the same. If the particles ar

Sever21 [200]

Answer:

A: -2.6 × 10^(-6) C and 2.6 × 10^(-6) C

Explanation:

According to coulombs law, the formula for the force between 2 charged particles is;

F = kq1•q2/r²

Where;

F is Force = |1N|

q1 and q2 are the charges of both particles

k is coulombs constant = 9 × 10^(9) N.m²/C²

r is distance between particles = 0.25

Now, the force |1N| means -1 or +1

Thus;

-1 = 9 × 10^(9) × q1•q2/(0.25)²

1 = 9 × 10^(9) × q1•q2/(0.25)²

Thus;

q1•q2 = -6.94 × 10^(-12)

Or q1•q2 = 6.94 × 10^(-12)

Now, we are told that the magnitude of both charges are the same.

Thus;

q² = 6.94 × 10^(-12)

q = √(6.94 × 10^(-12))

q = 2.6 × 10^(-6) C

Since from earlier, we saw that;

q1•q2 = -6.94 × 10^(-12)

Or q1•q2 = 6.94 × 10^(-12)

Thus means that one of the charges will be negative while the other will be positive.

Thus, the charges are;

-2.6 × 10^(-6) C and 2.6 × 10^(-6) C

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4 years ago

Which of the following statements about the nuclear strong force is true?

lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer: 2, the nuclear strong force drops to practically nothing at large distances.

Explanation: The protons and neutrons in the nucleus share subatomic particles called pions. This exchange is what keeps the protons and neutrons stuck together in the nucleus. Despite the strong force being the strongest force, it has a very small range. This is because pions have very short lifespans. So, the strong force would have literally no effect at large distances.

Hope that helped! :)

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3 years ago

The two basic measures of liquidity are the debt-to-equity ratio and the asset turnover ratio.

vredina [299]

Yes, it is true that two basic measures of liquidity are the debt-to-equity ratio and the asset turnover ratio.

Liquidity ratio refers to a class of financial metrics that are used to estimate the ability of a debtor to clear his debt obligations without any raise in external capital.

A company with sufficient liquidity has the ability to pay off its current bills in a short period of time.

If the debt-to-equity ratio is rising then it means increased interest expenses that can affect the rating of a company's creditor.

The formula of debt to equity ratio is

Debt to equity ratio = Total debt / Total equity

it refers to financial leverage including short and long-term debts.

If you need to learn more about asset click here:

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2 years ago

The value of MA in the third class lever is alaways less than one,why

mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

It is always less than 1 because the load arm is always longer than effort arm.

Explanation:

In the formula, MA= effort divided by load which makes it less than 1.

This helps by reducing the applied force(effort). It is a speed multiplier.

Hope it helps.

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4 years ago