Answer:
.
Explanation:
The frequency 
of a wave is equal to the number of wave cycles that go through a point on its path in unit time (where "unit time" is typically equal to one second.)
The wave in this question travels at a speed of 
. In other words, the wave would have traveled 
in each second. Consider a point on the path of this wave. If a peak was initially at that point, in one second that peak would be
How many wave cycles can fit into that ? The wavelength of this wave
gives the length of one wave cycle. Therefore:
.
That is: there are 
wave cycles in of this wave.
On the other hand, Because that of this wave goes through that point in each second, that wave cycles will go through that point in the same amount of time. Hence, the frequency of this wave would be
Because one wave cycle per second is equivalent to one Hertz, the frequency of this wave can be written as:
.
The calculations above can be expressed with the formula:
,
where
represents the speed of this wave, and 
represents the wavelength of this wave.
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that,
Initial velocity of an object, u = 22 m/s
Final velocity of an object, v = 36 m/s
Time, t = 5 s
It can be assumed to find the average acceleration of the object instead of average velocity.
The change in velocity per unit time is equal to average acceleration of an object. It can be given by :
So, the acceleration of the object is 
.
<span>500 cubic centimeters</span>
The Answer Is A
Hope This Helps !
Kinetic energy has nothing to do with anything other than motion of the particle.
When a particle with velocity v collides another particle(suppose it is at rest for simplication), assuming that there is perfectly elastic collision between them, the velocity of particle which was at rest becomes mv/M ( assuming mass of particle in motion to be m and at rest to be M) from convervation of linear momentum. And all this transfer of energy happens in a fraction of seconds which is not visible to naked eyes.
Hence 1st option is correct!
