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3 years ago

A tension of 35.0N is applied downward on a 2.50kg mass. What is the acceleration of the mass?

Physics

2 answers:

Bess [88]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

$\text{B. }-14.0\:\mathrm{m/s^2}$

Explanation:

From Newton's 2nd Law, we have $\Sigma F=ma$ .

Substituting given values, we get:

$-35.0=2.50a,\\a=\frac{-35.0}{2.50},\\a=\boxed{-14.0\:\mathrm{m/s^2}}$

*Note the negative sign simply implies that the mass is travelling downwards (direction).

Assoli18 [71]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

D. -23.8 m/s2

Explanation:

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Answer:

(a) The force between them quadruples

Explanation:

According to coulomb's law, initial force between the two charged objects is given as;

$F_1=\frac{Kq_1q_2}{r^2}$

where;

k is coulomb's constant

q₁ is the charge on the first object

q₂ is the charge on the second object

r is the distance between the two objects

When the charges on both objects are doubled, then;

q₁ = 2q₁

q₂ = 2q₂

Force between the two charged objects will become

$F_2 = \frac{K2q_12q_2}{r^2} = \frac{4Kq_1q_2}{r^2} = 4(\frac{Kq_1q_2}{r^2}) = 4F_1$

Therefore, the force between them quadruples

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3 years ago

Minute after minute, hour after hour, day after day, ocean waves continue to splash onto the shore. Explain why the beach is not

MAVERICK [17]

Answer: C. Ocean waves can only bring energy to the shore; the particles of the medium (water) simply oscillate about their fixed position.

Explanation:

The reason why the beach is not completely submerged and the reason why the middle of the ocean has not been depleted of its water supply is due to the fact that water isn't transported by ocean waves.

It should be noted that even a single drop of water cannot be brought by the ocean wave to the shore from the middle of the ocean.

The only thing that the ocean waves can bring to the shore is energy. Hemce, the water particles oscillate in their fixed position which is vital in making sure that the beach isn't piled up with water.

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An object with an initial speed of 4.0 m/s accelerates uniformly at 2.0 m/s^2

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Bingel [31]

Neither side of the equation may be used because there are too many unknown quantities before, during, and after the collision

Explanation:

The impulse theorem states that the change in momentum of an object is equal to the impulse, which is the product between the average force applied and the duration of the collision:

$\Delta p = F \Delta t$

where

$\Delta p$ is the change in momentum

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$\Delta t$ is the duration of the collision

In this problem, neither side of the equation can be used to measure the change in momentum. In fact:

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$\Delta p = m(v-u)$

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m is the mass of the object

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Here the final velocity is not known, so it's not possible to use this side of the equation

- The impulse (right side) is given by

$F\Delta t$

here the average force is known, however the duration of the collision is not known, so it's not possible to use this side of the equation.

Learn more about momentum:

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4 years ago

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Answer:

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