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vaieri [72.5K]
3 years ago
13

HELP!! Is –41/2 equivalent to (–4)1/2? Why or why not?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
8 0
No, they are not equivalent. The first term, -4 1/2 equals 4 whole units and one half unit. All negative. So it’s like you have someone 4 and 1/2 dollars.

The second term, (-4)1/2 means multiplying -4 times 1/2. Doing the multiplication for this gives you -4/2. Solving the division here is -2. It’s taking away 1/2 dollar 4 times.

I hope this helped. Happy to answer any questions you have.
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ΔHGE and ΔFGE are congruent by the Angle-Side-Angle Congruence Theorem (ASA).

<em><u>Recall:</u></em>

  • A segment that divides an angle into equal parts is known as an angle bisector.
  • Two triangles are congruent by the ASA Congruence Theorem if they share a common side and have two pairs of congruent angles.

In the diagram given, Angle bisector, GE, divides ∠HEF into congruent angles,  ∠HEG ≅ ∠GEF.

Also divides ∠FGH into congruent angles, ∠HGE ≅ ∠FGE.

Both triangles also share a common side, GE

<em>This implies that: ΔHGE and ΔFGE have:</em>

two pairs of congruent angles - ∠HEG ≅ ∠GEF and ∠HGE ≅ ∠FGE

a shared side - GE

Therefore, ΔHGE and ΔFGE are congruent by the Angle-Side-Angle Congruence Theorem (ASA).

Learn more about ASA Congruence Theorem on:

brainly.com/question/82493

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