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vaieri [72.5K]
3 years ago
13

HELP!! Is –41/2 equivalent to (–4)1/2? Why or why not?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
8 0
No, they are not equivalent. The first term, -4 1/2 equals 4 whole units and one half unit. All negative. So it’s like you have someone 4 and 1/2 dollars.

The second term, (-4)1/2 means multiplying -4 times 1/2. Doing the multiplication for this gives you -4/2. Solving the division here is -2. It’s taking away 1/2 dollar 4 times.

I hope this helped. Happy to answer any questions you have.
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The state education commission wants to estimate the fraction of tenth grade students that have reading skills at or below the e
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The estimation for the proportion of tenth graders reading at or below the eighth grade level is given by:

\hat p =\frac{955-812}{955}= 0.150

0.150 - 1.64 \sqrt{\frac{0.150(1-0.150)}{955}}=0.131

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And the 90% confidence interval would be given (0.131;0.169).

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following info given:

n= 955 represent the sampel size slected

x = 812 number of students who read above the eighth grade level

The estimation for the proportion of tenth graders reading at or below the eighth grade level is given by:

\hat p =\frac{955-812}{955}= 0.150

The confidence interval for the proportion  would be given by this formula

\hat p \pm z_{\alpha/2} \sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n}}

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z_{\alpha/2}=1.64

And replacing into the confidence interval formula we got:

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0.150 + 1.64 \sqrt{\frac{0.150(1-0.150)}{955}}=0.169

And the 90% confidence interval would be given (0.131;0.169).

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