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kolezko [41]
3 years ago
10

Who wanna learn C# for free tell me​

Engineering
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
8 0
I would would like to learn #c for free tell me
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At what stage of development is an engineering team the most productive?
Alexxx [7]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A because you are continuing to keep moving and thinking.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are in charge of ordering the concrete for a basement wall concrete pour. The wall forms are all set up and ready. The wall
choli [55]

Answer:

189.15cy

Explanation:

To understand this problem we need to understand as well the form.

It is clear that there is four wall, two short and two long.

The two long are \rightarrow 120ft5in+2(10ft)

The two long are \rightarrow 122ft1in=122.08ft

The two shors are \rightarrow 86ft4.5in = 86.375ft

The height and the thickness are 14ft and 0.83ft respectively.

So we only calculate the Quantity of concrete,

Q_c = [(2*122.08)+(2*86-375)]*14*0.833\\Q_c=4864.02ft^3

That in cubic yards is equal to 180.15 (1cy=27ft^3)

Hence, we need order 5% plus that represent with the quantity

Q_{ordered}=1.05*180.15=189.15cy

8 0
3 years ago
In the circuit given below, R1 = 17 kΩ, R2 = 74 kΩ, and R3 = 5 MΩ. Calculate the gain 1formula58.mml when the switch is in posit
Elenna [48]

Answer:a

a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4

b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8

c) Vo/Vi = - 1000

Explanation:

a)

R1 = 17kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0

sin we know Va≈Vb=0

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k

Vo/Vi = -3.4

║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4    ( negative sign phase inversion)

b)

R2 = 74kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

so

(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 14.8

║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8  ( negative sign phase inversion)

c)

Also for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0           ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 1000

║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000  ( negative sign phase inversion)

3 0
3 years ago
Two streams of air enter a control volume: stream 1 enters at a rate of 0.05 kg / s at 300 kPa and 380 K, while stream 2 enters
alex41 [277]

Answer:

0.08kg/s

Explanation:

For this problem you must use 2 equations, the first is the continuity equation that indicates that all the mass flows that enter is equal to those that leave the system, there you have the first equation.

The second equation is obtained using the first law of thermodynamics that indicates that all the energies that enter a system are the same that come out, you must take into account the heat flows, work and mass flows of each state, as well as their enthalpies found with the temperature.

 

finally you use the two previous equations to make a system and find the mass flows

I attached procedure

5 0
3 years ago
When buttons or switches are pressed by humans for arbitrary periods of time, we need to convert a signal level to a pulse. In t
ddd [48]

Answer:

The FSM uses the states along with the generation at the P output on each of the positive edges of the CLK. The memory stores the previous state in the machine and the decoder generates a P output based on the previous state.

Explanation:

The code is in the image.

6 0
3 years ago
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