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Mechanical Advantage = Force by Hammer / Force by Nail = 160/40 = 4
Answer:
Explanation:
I think this answer would be 1m to the left.
A) d. 10T
When a charged particle moves at right angle to a uniform magnetic field, it experiences a force whose magnitude os given by

where q is the charge of the particle, v is the velocity, B is the strength of the magnetic field.
This force acts as a centripetal force, keeping the particle in a circular motion - so we can write

which can be rewritten as

The velocity can be rewritten as the ratio between the lenght of the circumference and the period of revolution (T):

So, we get:

We see that this the period of revolution is directly proportional to the mass of the particle: therefore, if the second particle is 10 times as massive, then its period will be 10 times longer.
B) 
The frequency of revolution of a particle in uniform circular motion is

where
f is the frequency
T is the period
We see that the frequency is inversely proportional to the period. Therefore, if the period of the more massive particle is 10 times that of the smaller particle:
T' = 10 T
Then its frequency of revolution will be:

The velocity when function p(t)=11 is 8 .
According to the question
The position of a car at time t represented by function :
Now,
When function p(t) = 11 , t will be
11 = t²+2t-4
0 = t² + 2t - 15
or
t² +2t-15 = 0
t² +(5-3)t-15 = 0
t² +5t-3t-15 = 0
t(t+5)-3(t+5) = 0
(t-3)(t+5) = 0
t = 3 , -5
as t cannot be -ve as given ( t≥0)
so,
t = 3
Now,
the velocity when p(t)=11
As we know velocity =
therefore to get the value of velocity from function p(t)
we have to differentiate the function with respect to time
v(t) = 2t + 2
where v(t) = velocity at that time
as t = 3 for p(t)=11
so ,
v(t) = 2t + 2
v(t) = 2*3 + 2
v(t) = 8
Hence, the velocity when function p(t)=11 is 8 .
To know more about function here:
brainly.com/question/12431044
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