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stiks02 [169]
3 years ago
13

How many moles of argon gas would be present in a 37.0 liter vessel at 45.00 °C at a pressure of 2.50 atm?

Chemistry
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3.54 mol

Explanation:

Step 1: Given data

  • Volume (V): 37.0 L
  • Temperature (T): 45.00 °C
  • Pressure (P): 2.50 atm

Step 2: Convert "T" to Kelvin

We will use the following expression.

K = °C + 273.15

K = 45.00°C + 273.15 = 318.15 K

Step 3: Calculate the number of moles (n) of argon gas

We will use the ideal gas equation.

P × V = n × R × T

n = P × V/R × T

n = 2.50 atm × 37.0 L/(0.0821 atm.L/mol.K) × 318.15 K = 3.54 mol

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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MethaneProteinAlcohol can be found in beer, wine and liquor.
artcher [175]
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3 0
3 years ago
In the oxidation reduction reaction 2FeCl2 + Cl2 = 2FeCl3 what substance is reduced? What substance is oxidized?
marishachu [46]

Answer:

Iron is oxidized while chlorine is reduced.

Explanation:

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Oxidation:

Oxidation involve the removal of electrons and oxidation state of atom of an element is increased.

Reduction:

Reduction involve the gain of electron and oxidation number is decreased.

Consider the following reaction:

2FeCl₂  + Cl₂  →  2FeCl₃

in this reaction the oxidation state of iron is increased from +2 to +3. That's why iron get oxidized and it is reducing agent because it reduced the chlorine. The chlorine is reduced from -2 to -3 and it is oxidizing agent because it oxidized the iron.

2Fe⁺²Cl₂⁻²

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4 0
3 years ago
What energy is defined as the energy of motion
Veronika [31]

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5 0
3 years ago
Diana raises a 1000. N piano a distance of 5.00 m using a set of pulleys. She pulls
Alina [70]

Answer:

a) 250 N

b) 50 N

c) 5000 J

d) 4

e) 3.33

Explanation:

Given that weight of piano (F_r) = 1000 N, distance moved by pulley (d_r) = 5 m and the rope used (d_e) =20 m

a) The effort applied (F_e) if it was an ideal machine is:

F_e=\frac{F_rd_r}{d_e} = \frac{1000*5}{20}=250N

b) If the actual effort  = 300 N

The force to overcome friction = actual effort - F_e = 300 - 250 = 50 N

c) Work output = F_rd_r=1000*5=5000J

d) ideal mechanical  advantage (IMA) = \frac{d_e}{d_r} =\frac{20}{5} = 4

e) Input force = 300 N, Therefore:

actual mechanical advantage = F_r / input force = 1000 / 300 = 3.33

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3 years ago
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