Yes. Conceptually, all the matrices in the group have the same structure, except for the variable component 
. So, each matrix is identified by its top-right coefficient, since the other three entries remain constant.
However, let's prove in a more formal way that
![\phi:\ \mathbb{R} \to G,\quad \phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cphi%3A%5C%20%5Cmathbb%7BR%7D%20%5Cto%20G%2C%5Cquad%20%5Cphi%28x%29%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26x%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20)
is an isomorphism.
First of all, it is injective: suppose 
. Then, you trivially have 
, because they are two different matrices:
![\phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right],\quad \phi(y) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&y\\0&1\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cphi%28x%29%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26x%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%5Cquad%20%5Cphi%28y%29%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26y%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20)
Secondly, it is trivially surjective: the matrix
![\phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cphi%28x%29%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26x%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20)
is clearly the image of the real number x.
Finally, 
and its inverse are both homomorphisms: if we consider the usual product between matrices to be the operation for the group G and the real numbers to be an additive group, we have
![\phi (x+y) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x+y\\0&1\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right] \cdot \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&y\\0&1\end{array}\right] = \phi(x) \cdot \phi(y)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cphi%20%28x%2By%29%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26x%2By%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%3D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26x%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Ccdot%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcc%7D1%26y%5C%5C0%261%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%3D%20%5Cphi%28x%29%20%5Ccdot%20%5Cphi%28y%29)
Answer:
hope it helps you see the attachment for further information.....
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
We can put this into an equation:
10/x=5
first, we multiply x on both sides:
10=5x
and then we divide by 5 on both:
2=x
so the answer is 2
Answer:
deleted account so imma j take the points thx
Step-by-step explanation:
Long leg = 8 → opposite
short leg = 6 → adjacent
hypotenuse = ?
8² + 6² = c²
64 + 36 = c²
100 = c²
√100 = √c²
10 = c
sin ∠BOC = opposite / hypotenuse
sin ∠BOC = 8 / 10
sin ∠BOC = 0.80
tan ∠BOC = opposite / adjacent
tan ∠BOC = 8 / 6
tan ∠BOC = 1.33
