Answer:
Hello! I hope I am correct! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s first calculate the black circle & the white space.
Since there is more white space than the black circle, we already know that the white space will have more probability.
These are the steps you need to do, in order to so love this problem:
1. Find the area of both, the white space and the black circle.
2. Divide both of them by the area of the square.
3. Do all these steps to find the probability/hitting.
Part A:
Black circle: ( π *1^2) / ( π 5^2) = 1/25 = .04 or 3.14% chance.
So we can tell it’s close to zero.
Part B: 1 - .04 = 0.96 or 97%
This is close to one.
(Remember I am not saying the exact, it’s a estimate)
Brainliest would be appreciated!
Hope this helps! :)
By; BrainlyAnime
Step-by-step explanation:
The outlier is excluded, so the minimum is 59.
14/23. You can’t simplify it anymore. It is also equivalent to about 61% (60.86% to be exact)
Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall Euler's theorem: if 
, then
where 
is Euler's totient function.
We have 
- in fact, 
for any 
since 
and 
share no common divisors - as well as 
.
Now,
where the 
are positive integer coefficients from the binomial expansion. By Euler's theorem,
so that
