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Alex Ar [27]
3 years ago
8

A wave is traveling at a speed of 18 m/s with a frequency of 3 Hz. A second wave is traveling at a speed of 16 m/s with a freque

ncy of 4 Hz. What is the difference between these two wavelengths?worked out
Physics
1 answer:
Alik [6]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2Hz

Explanation:

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a uniform disc and hollow right circular cone have the same formula for their moment of inertia when rotating about the central
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

This is as a result that about the central axis a collapsed hollow cone is equivalent to a uniform disc

Explanation:

The integration of the differential mass of the hollow right circular cone yields

I=\int\limits   dmr^2 = \int\limits^a_b {\frac{2Mxr^2}{R^2 +H^2} } \, dx  = \frac{2MR^2dx}{(R^2 +H^2)^2} \frac{(R^2 +H^2)^2}{4} = \frac{1}{2}MR^2

and for a uniform disc

I = 1/2πρtr⁴ = 1/2Mr².

6 0
3 years ago
50g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 50g of water at 80°C, what will be the final temperature of a mixture in
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

0° C

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of ice, m = 50g

Mass of water, m(w) = 50g

Temperature of ice, T(i) = 0° C

Temperature of water, T(w) = 80° C

Also, it is known that

Specific heat of water, c = 1 cal/g/°C

Latent heat of ice, L(w) = 89 cal/g

Let us assume T to be the final temperature of mixture.

This makes the energy balance equation:

Heat gained by ice to change itself into water + heat gained by melted ice(water) to raise its temperature at T° C = heat lost by water to reach at T° C

m(i).L(i) + m(i).c(w)[T - 0] = m(w).c(w)[80 - T], on substituting, we have

50 * 80 + 50 * 1(T - 0) = 50 * 1(80 - T)

4000 + 50T = 4000 - 50T

0 = 100 T

T = 0° C

Thus, the final temperature is 0° C

3 0
2 years ago
in which kind of radioactive decay would the number of protons in the resulting nucleus be more than in the initial nucleus?
9966 [12]

Answer:

A related type of beta decay

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Provided the amplitude is sufficiently great, the human ear can respond to longitudinal waves over a range of frequencies from a
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

The beat frequency is

df = f2 - f1

the wavelength is

lamda1 = (v/f1)

and lamda2 = (v/f2)

where v = 340 m/s,f1 = 25.0 kHz and f2 = 20.0 kHz

8 0
2 years ago
Four football players are running down the field at the same speed. Player 1 weighs 180 lbs and is running toward the south goal
ANTONII [103]
Player 4 ..................
3 0
3 years ago
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