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3 years ago

Will it take longer for a train or a car traveling at 100 mi/hr to stop

Physics

2 answers:

Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago

6 0

It typically take longer for a heavier object to slow down therefor, a train will take more time. <span />

Allushta [10]3 years ago

3 0

<h3><u>Answer;</u></h3>

A train will take longer time to stop compared to a car.

<h3><u>Explanation;</u></h3>

For a body in motion to stop a braking force at a given distance is required for the body to loose kinetic energy.
The the stopping distance of a car depends on the breaking force and the the mass of the moving body. The stopping distance will depend on the kinetic energy and the breaking force acting to stop the motion of a body.
<em><u>The mass of a moving body determines its kinetic energy, and also determines the resultant force according to the newton seconds law of motion . Therefore, mass determines the breaking force and the stopping distance, such that a big body in motion will require more force to stop and will take a longer stopping distance and time.</u></em>

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Cheetahs can accelerate to a speed of 19.6 m/s in 2.45 s and can continue to accelerate to reach a top speed of 27.6 m/s . Assum

marta [7]

Answer:

$v_{top} = 61.96 \frac{mi}{h}$

Explanation:

To express the cheetah's top speed in miles per hour, we just need to find the conversion factor.

We know that the top speed is

$v_{top} = 27.7 \frac{m}{s}$

So, we want to obtain miles from meters and hours from seconds.

<h3>miles from meters</h3>

First we write the equivalence:

$1609.34 \ m = 1 \ mi$

Now, we can divide by 1609.34 meters on both sides:

$\frac{1609.34 \ m}{ 1609.34 \ m} = \frac{1 \ mi}{ 1609.34 \ m}$

The left sides equals 1, so

$1 = \frac{1 \ mi}{ 1609.34 \ m}$

And this is our conversion factor from meters to miles. Now, we can multiply our top speed by this conversion factor, as the conversion factor equals one, and is dimensionless, the physical meaning will be the same.

$v_{top} = 27.7 \frac{m}{s} * \frac{1 \ mi}{ 1609.34 \ m}$

$v_{top} = 0.0172120 \frac{mi}{s}$

This is the top speed in miles per second, now, for obtaining miles per hour:

<h3>hours from seconds</h3>

We can do pretty much the same, first, the equivalence:

$1 \ h = 3600 \ s$

as the seconds are dividing in the velocity, we know divide by 1 hour.

$\frac{1 \ h}{ 1 \ h} = \frac{3600 \ s}{ 1 \ h}$

$1 = \frac{3600 \ s}{ 1 \ h}$

and know we just multiply our top speed by this conversion factor

$v_{top} = 0.0172120 \frac{mi}{s} \frac{3600 \ s}{ 1 \ h}$

$v_{top} = 61.96 \frac{mi}{h}$

8 0

3 years ago

According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of

Darina [25.2K]

Before going to answer this question first we have to understand reflection and laws of reflection.

Reflection is the optical phenomenon in which light will bounce back to the same medium from which it had originated .

Whenever a light ray will incident on a mirror or any reflecting surface, it will be reflected. The ray which falls on the reflecting surface is called incident ray and the ray which is reflected is called reflected ray.

Let us consider a normal to the point of incidence.The angle made by incident ray with the normal is called angle of incidence.Let it be denoted as[ i ]

The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal is called angle of incidence.Let it be denoted as [r]

There are two types of reflection.One is called regular and other one is called as irregular.The laws of reflection is valid for both the types of reflection.

There are two laws of reflection.

FIRST LAW -It states that the incident ray,reflected ray and the normal to the point of incidence,all lie in one plane.

SECOND LAW- It states that that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection irrespective of the type of reflection.i.e i =r

Hence the correct answer will be angle of reflection.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Faraday's Law states that the negative of the time rate of change of the flux of the magnetic field through a surface is equal t

MrRa [10]

Answer:

(C). The line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop

Explanation:

Faraday's law states that induced emf is directly proportional to the time rate of change of magnetic flux.

This can be written mathematically as;

$EMF = -\frac{\delta \phi _B}{\delta t}$

$(\frac{\delta \phi _B}{\delta t} )$ is the rate of change of the magnetic flux through a surface bounded by the loop.

ΔФ = BA

where;

ΔФ is change in flux

B is the magnetic field

A is the area of the loop

Thus, according to Faraday's law of electric generators

∫BdL = $\frac{\delta \phi _B}{\delta t}$ = EMF

Therefore, the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop is equal to the negative of the rate of change of the magnetic flux through the area enclosed by the loop.

The correct option is "C"

(C). The line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop

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3 years ago

What is the physical energy that stimulates sight?

erastova [34]

B . light is <span>the physical energy that stimulates sight</span>

6 0

2 years ago

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Por favor ayuda que ejercicio debo hacer para enflacar en una semana xd

Serggg [28]

Answer:

Un excelente ejercicio para perder barriga rápidamente es correr, ya que el cuerpo gasta una mayor cantidad de calorías en un corto período de tiempo, en tan sólo 30 minutos corriendo se queman unas 300 calorías.

...

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Explanation:

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8 0

3 years ago