Answer:
Friction can be minimized by using lubricants like oil and grease and by using ball bearing between machine parts. A substance that is introduced between two surfaces in contact, to reduce friction, is called a lubricant. Fluid friction can be minimized by giving suitable shapes to the objects moving in the fluids.
Explanation:
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Answer:
Acceleration of the crate is 0.362 m/s^2.
Explanation:
Given:
Mass of the box, m = 40 kg
Applied force, F = 15 N
Angle at which the force is applied, 
= 15°
We have to find the magnitude of the acceleration.
Let the acceleration be "a".
FBD is attached with where we can see the horizontal and vertical component of force.
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and ⇒ 
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⇒ Applying concept of forces.
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<em> ...Newtons second law Fnet = ma</em>
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⇒ Plugging the values.
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<em>...f is the friction which is zero here.</em>
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Magnitude of the acceleration of the crate is 0.362 m/s^2.
Answer:
![\vec{E} = \frac{\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0}[\frac{1}{y}(\^y) - \frac{1}{x}(\^x)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cvec%7BE%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7By%7D%28%5C%5Ey%29%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bx%7D%28%5C%5Ex%29%5D)
Explanation:
The electric field created by an infinitely long wire can be found by Gauss' Law.
For the electric field at point (x,y), the superposition of electric fields created by both lines should be calculated. The distance 'r' for the first wire is equal to 'y', and equal to 'x' for the second wire.
![\vec{E} = \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_2 = \frac{\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0 y}(\^y) + \frac{-\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0 x}(\^x)\\\vec{E} = \frac{\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0 y}(\^y) - \frac{\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0 x}(\^x)\\\vec{E} = \frac{\lambda}{2\pi\epsilon_0}[\frac{1}{y}(\^y) - \frac{1}{x}(\^x)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cvec%7BE%7D%20%3D%20%5Cvec%7BE%7D_1%20%2B%20%5Cvec%7BE%7D_2%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%20y%7D%28%5C%5Ey%29%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B-%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%20x%7D%28%5C%5Ex%29%5C%5C%5Cvec%7BE%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%20y%7D%28%5C%5Ey%29%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%20x%7D%28%5C%5Ex%29%5C%5C%5Cvec%7BE%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Clambda%7D%7B2%5Cpi%5Cepsilon_0%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7By%7D%28%5C%5Ey%29%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bx%7D%28%5C%5Ex%29%5D)
From t=0 onwards I changes slowly and V changes abruptly across the inductor.
At time t=0, the voltage across the inductor equalises the battery voltage; nevertheless, Lenz's Law states that this induced EMF will always be opposed to the polarity of the battery. The voltage across the inductor is equivalent to the voltage of a battery because the inductor at time zero behaves like a second battery of the same voltage linked in reverse.
Because current can never be zero, voltage across the inductor decreases with time. If it did, there would be no back EMF to stop the current from flowing through the inductor because the magnetic field would not be changing. As a result, the inductor will become less of an open circuit as the current increases over time. The inductor will essentially behave like a resistor.
Learn more about inductor here:
brainly.com/question/15893850
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Answer:
The time taken for the train to cross the bridge is 9.01 s
Explanation:
Given;
length of the train, L₁ = 90 m
length of the bridge, L₂ = 0.06 m
speed of the train, v = 10 m/s
Total distance to be traveled, = L₁ + L₂
= 90 m + 0.06 m
= 90.06 m
Time of motion = Distance / speed
Time of motion = 90.06 / 10
Time of motion = 9.006 s ≅ 9.01 s
Therefore, the time taken for the train to cross the bridge is 9.01 s
