Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
The following gives 28 in multiplication tables (for positive integers):
1x28
2x14
4x7
7x4
14x2
Of course you can go into -28x-1 etc. but I feel this is adequate. If you'd like more just say.
The function f(x) is:
f(x)=x
This is because the line f(x) passes through the points (-1,-1), (0,0), (1,1) etc.
The function p(x) is:
p(x)=mx+C
Whereby (m) is the slope and (C) is a constant.
m=-4/3, as m=tan(ω)=O/A=-4/3 as slope is negative.
Now when y=-3, x=-3.
So:
-3=-4/3 *(-3) +C
-3= 4 + C
C=-7
This means that:
p(x)=-4/3x -7
Now, where p(x)=g(x), x=-6.
p(-6)=-4/3 * (-6) -7
p(-6)=24/3 -7
p(-6)=8-7
p(-6)=1
Therefore:
p(x) and g(x) meet at (-6, 1) and the solution to p(x)=g(x) is x=-6.
Answer:
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target
This means that 
10 targets
This means that 
What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?
Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

We want P(X < 10). So

In which

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them